To calculate the ideal body weight for a woman, the nurse allows a) 100 pounds for 5 feet of height. To calculate the ideal body weight of a woman, the nurse allows 100 pounds for 5 feet of height and adds 5 pounds for each additional inch over 5 feet b) 106 pounds for 5 feet of height. The nurse allows 106 pounds for 5 feet of height in calculating the ideal body weight for a man. c) 6 pounds for each additional inch over 5 feet. The nurse adds 6 pounds for each additional inch over 5 feet in calculating the ideal body weight for a man. d) 80 pounds for 5 feet of height. Eighty pounds for 5 feet of height is too little.

To calculate the ideal body weight for a woman, the nurse allows
a) 100 pounds for 5 feet of height.
To calculate the ideal body weight of a woman, the nurse allows 100
pounds for 5 feet of height and adds 5 pounds for each additional inch
over 5 feet
b) 106 pounds for 5 feet of height.
The nurse allows 106 pounds for 5 feet of height in calculating the
ideal body weight for a man.
c) 6 pounds for each additional inch over 5 feet.
The nurse adds 6 pounds for each additional inch over 5 feet in
calculating the ideal body weight for a man.
d) 80 pounds for 5 feet of height.
Eighty pounds for 5 feet of height is too little.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) 100 pounds for 5 feet of height.
To calculate the ideal body weight of a woman, the nurse allows 100
pounds for 5 feet of height and adds 5 pounds for each additional inch
over 5 feet
by

Related questions

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes. b) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. c) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger. d) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to ... the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve. b) Peroneal The peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes. c) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. d) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation ... The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Last Answer : a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve.

The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach. b) Minimize intake of caffeine, ****, milk, and foods containing peppermint and spearmint. The patient should be instructed to avoid the listed foods and food components. c) Elevate the foot of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks The patient should be instructed to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not ... blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Last Answer : a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach.

80. An officer-in-charge signs a document for the chief nurse who went on leave. The OIC signs her full name over the name of the chief nurse. The proper way to sign for the chief nurse who is on leave is

Description : 80. An officer-in-charge signs a document for the chief nurse who went on leave. The OIC signs her full name over the name of the chief nurse. The proper way to sign for the chief nurse who is on leave is

Last Answer : D. Sign on a separate line as OIC

When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient’s posturing as a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient's ... rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

Last Answer : a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

Description : When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person ... 20/20 line, the person of normal vision will be standing at a distance of 20 feet from the chart.

Last Answer : a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

79. A scrub nurse is assisting an emergency Cesarian section on a 39-year-old laundry woman. Before closing the peritoneum, the surgeon asks, “How old is the client?” Holding the fallopian tube, the surgeon asks for a hemostat. The scrub nurse sensing that the surgeon is about to ligate the tube said, “Doctor there is no signed consent for tubal ligation.” The nurse just demonstrated which of the following?

Description : 79. A scrub nurse is assisting an emergency Cesarian section on a 39-year-old laundry woman. Before closing the peritoneum, the surgeon asks, How old is the client? Holding the fallopian ... there is no signed consent for tubal ligation. The nurse just demonstrated which of the following?

Last Answer : C. Advocacy

The normal serum value for potassium is a) 3.5-5.5 mEq/L. Serum potassium must be within normal limits to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias. b) 135-145 mEq/L. Normal serum sodium is 135-145 mEq/L. c) 96-106 mEq/L. Normal serum chloride is 96-106 mEq/L. d) 8.5-10.5 mg/dL. Normal total serum calcium is 8.5-10.5mg/dL.

Description : The normal serum value for potassium is a) 3.5-5.5 mEq/L. Serum potassium must be within normal limits to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias. b) 135-145 mEq/L. Normal serum sodium is 135-145 mEq/L. c) 96-106 mEq/L. ... is 96-106 mEq/L. d) 8.5-10.5 mg/dL. Normal total serum calcium is 8.5-10.5mg/dL.

Last Answer : a) 3.5-5.5 mEq/L. Serum potassium must be within normal limits to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias.

In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient’s residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions (morning and evening)? a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Description : In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient's residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions ... urine that is greater than 100 cc indicates that the suprapubic catheter cannot be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Description : When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in ... residual exceeds 100 cc, the tube feeding should be withheld at that time, but not indefinitely.

Last Answer : a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Mrs. C. Serdenio is currently enrolled in the master’s program at the State University and is currently writing her thesis. She applied as a chief nurse in St. John’s hospital and was accepted. Since her assumption to office, she has been signing documents as master’s graduate affixing “RN, MAN” to her name. the action of the chief nurse constitutes A. Misrepresentation B. Malpractice C. Personification D. Misdemeanor

Description : Mrs. C. Serdenio is currently enrolled in the master's program at the State University and is currently writing her thesis. She applied as a chief nurse in St. John's hospital and ... . the action of the chief nurse constitutes A. Misrepresentation B. Malpractice C. Personification D. Misdemeanor

Last Answer : A. Misrepresentation

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out ... alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.

Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

James ordered a fishing rod, priced at $3.56. Unfortunately, James is an Eskimo who lives in a very remote part of Greenland and the import rules there forbid any package longer than 4 feet to be imported. The fishing rod was 4 feet and 1 inch, just a little too long, so how can the fishing rod be mailed to James without breaking the rules? Ideally James would like the fishing rod to arrive in one piece! -Riddles

Description : James ordered a fishing rod, priced at $3.56. Unfortunately, James is an Eskimo who lives in a very remote part of Greenland and the import rules there forbid any package longer than 4 feet to ... without breaking the rules? Ideally James would like the fishing rod to arrive in one piece! -Riddles

Last Answer : Insert the fishing rod into a box which measures 4 feet on all sides, the fishing rod will fit within the diagonal of the box with room to spare.

When providing care to the patient with bilateral nephrostomy tubes, the nurse never does which of the following? a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a nephrostomy tube because it could cause obstruction and resultant pyelonephritis.

Description : When providing care to the patient with bilateral nephrostomy tubes, the nurse never does which of the following? a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a ... saline q8h as ordered The nurse may irrigate a nephrostomy tube with specific orders to do so.

Last Answer : a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a nephrostomy tube because it could cause obstruction and resultant pyelonephritis.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.

Description : Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse ... avoid volunteering unnecessary information (e.g., patient was drinking at the time of the accident).

Last Answer : a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Description : When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test ... When antibodies to the AIDS virus are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.

Last Answer : a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is an indicator of shock. c) Warm, dry skin Skin is generally cool and moist in shock. d) Increased urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is ... urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Last Answer : a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate.

75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

Description : 75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

Last Answer : A. 3, 4, 5, and 6

40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time the medication was ordered 4. Dosage, route, frequency and strength 5. Physician’s signature and specialty 6. Physician’s signature and PRC license number

Description : 40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time ... and strength 5. Physician's signature and specialty 6. Physician's signature and PRC license number

Last Answer : C. All except 5 and 6

Reviewing the laboratory findings of the client, the nurse would found which findings are elevated? 1. White blood cell count 2. Total serum bilirubin 3. Alkaline phosphate 4. Red blood cell count 5. Cholesterol 6. Serum amylase A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 3, 5, and 6 D. 1, 2, and 6

Description : Reviewing the laboratory findings of the client, the nurse would found which findings are elevated? 1. White blood cell count 2. Total serum bilirubin 3. Alkaline phosphate 4. Red blood cell count 5. Cholesterol 6. Serum amylase A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 3, 5, and 6 D. 1, 2, and 6

Last Answer : A. 1, 2, and 3

69. When Marina checked the capillary blood glucose of the client at 6 PM before meals as instructed by the senior nurse, the result showed 65 mg/dl. Which of the following will Marina do first?

Description : 69. When Marina checked the capillary blood glucose of the client at 6 PM before meals as instructed by the senior nurse, the result showed 65 mg/dl. Which of the following will Marina do first?

Last Answer : C. Check the physician’s order in case CBG is below 70 mg/dl

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse assesses coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration by listening over the trachea with a stethoscope. The nurse should immediately A. Position client to Fowler’s B. Reassure the client that he is doing fine C. Suction the tracheostomy tube D. Report to the surgeon

Description : In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse assesses coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration by listening over the trachea with a stethoscope. The nurse should immediately A. Position client to ... the client that he is doing fine C. Suction the tracheostomy tube D. Report to the surgeon

Last Answer : Which of the following expected outcomes for the patient is most relevant for the nursing diagnosis “At risk for imbalanced nutrition related to impaired swallowing”? A. Appropriate body weight maintained B. Fear of choking relieved C. Oral intake increased D. Swallowing of soft foods facilitated

Normal range of serum chloride is (A) 24–27 mEq/L (B) 70–80 mEq/L (C) 100–106 mEq/L (D) 120–140 mEq/L

Description : Normal range of serum chloride is (A) 24–27 mEq/L (B) 70–80 mEq/L (C) 100–106 mEq/L (D) 120–140 mEq/L

Last Answer : Answer : C

A man throws a ball to maximum horizontal distance of 80 meters. Calculate the maximum height reached.

Description : A man throws a ball to maximum horizontal distance of 80 meters. Calculate the maximum height reached.

Last Answer : A man throws a ball to maximum horizontal distance of 80 meters. Calculate the maximum height reached.

The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Description : The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed ... retention before their menstrual period, BSE is best performed when the time for menses is taken into account.

Last Answer : a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma. b) normal. A class 1 Pap smear is interpreted as normal. c) probably normal. A class 2 Pap smear is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Description : When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, ... is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Last Answer : a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma.

When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse lubricates the catheter and gently inserts it into the stoma no more than _______ inches a) 3” The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches. b) 2” Insertion of the catheter 2 inches is inadequate. c) 4” Insertion of the catheter 4 inches is excessive and not recommended. d) 5” Insertion of the catheter 5 inches is excessive and not recommended.

Description : When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse lubricates the catheter and gently inserts it into the stoma no more than _______ inches a) 3 The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches. b ... and not recommended. d) 5 Insertion of the catheter 5 inches is excessive and not recommended.

Last Answer : a) 3” The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches.

Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient's fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are ... 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

When bowel sounds are heard about every 15 seconds, the nurse would record that the bowel sounds are a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds. b) hypoactive. Hypoactive bowel sounds is the description given to auscultation of one to two bowel sounds in 2 minutes. c) sluggish. Sluggish is not a term a nurse would use to accurately describe bowel sounds. d) absent. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3-5 minutes.

Description : When bowel sounds are heard about every 15 seconds, the nurse would record that the bowel sounds are a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds. b) hypoactive. Hypoactive bowel sounds ... absent. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3-5 minutes.

Last Answer : a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds.

81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Description : 81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Last Answer : A. All except 5

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

What is the minimum age for becoming a nurse in 19th century?

Description : What is the minimum age for becoming a nurse in 19th century?

Last Answer : Your question presumes that 21st cenury standards were applied in the 19th century. There was no certification of nurses until late in the 19th century. Florence Nightingale, the mother of Nursing didn; ... in 1890 was vastlly different from nursing in 1810. But both were in the 19th century.

If you were sick in the hospital, what would differentiate a mediocre nurse from an outstanding nurse?

Description : If you were sick in the hospital, what would differentiate a mediocre nurse from an outstanding nurse?

Last Answer : Compassion and a cheerful and drama free personality. They care, and they’re patient, no matter how difficult their day is, you will never know it. A great nurse knows to quit if they burn out and start hating their job.

What must you be good at in order to be a nurse?

Description : What must you be good at in order to be a nurse?

Last Answer : Drawing blood without digging a hole in the patient’s arm.

Any words of advice for a new grad nurse?

Description : Any words of advice for a new grad nurse?

Last Answer : answer:My daughter is a nurse. She was given bad advise on the first job she landed. It was at the Tennessee State Prison!! This is the worst possible place for a nurse, especially a new nurse, to begin her ... she moved to Seattle. This was not a safe job for her or for you. Keep this in mind. jp

Should I change surgeons if I have a problem with his nurse?

Description : Should I change surgeons if I have a problem with his nurse?

Last Answer : I don't believe you to be over-reacting. Talk with your surgeon. You need to be as relaxed and comfortable going in as you can. This is outrageous. Please, please don't go under the knife ... There is nothing wrong with your thinking. PM me if you'd like. I have recent experience with surgery.

I removed my own IV and a hospital nurse went bonkers. Is it so dangerous?

Description : I removed my own IV and a hospital nurse went bonkers. Is it so dangerous?

Last Answer : I agree with you. When I’m put in the hospital, I get IVs a lot. I’ve taken them out on my own plenty of times..and never hurt myself. I think they freak it because you hurting yourself or doing that can get them in trouble, fired, or even sued.

Who makes more? A nurse practicioner or a physicians asistant?

Description : Who makes more? A nurse practicioner or a physicians asistant?

Last Answer : The Dept of Labor produces a document called the Occupational Outlook Handbook that compares projections of salaries, the types of training required, anticipated markets for various services etc. Check out: http://www.bls.gov/OCO/

During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Description : During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A ... or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.

Last Answer : a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.