Description : Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudo membranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Vancomycin (d) Clindamycin
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : What is the most important reason for restricted clinical use of chloramphenicol ? (a) Its narrow spectrum of activity (b) Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance (c) Its potential to cause bone marrow depression (d) Its potential to cause superinfections
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Select the antibiotic(s) that can be used to treat nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Azithromycin B. Doxycycline C. Clindamycin D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin
Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin
Description : A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day's duration. Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this ... initiate treatment with (a) Cefazolin (b) Clindamycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Trovafloxacin
Description : A single oral dose of the following antibiotic is curative in most patients of nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Doxycycline B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Cotrimoxazole
Last Answer : B. Azithromycin
Description : An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)
Description : A 19-year-old woman with recurrent sinusitis has been treated with different antibiotics on several occasions. During the course of one such treatment she developed a severe diarrhea and was hospitalized. ... difficile? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Clindamycin (d) Metonidazole (e) Tetracycline
Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin
Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin
Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin
Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well
Description : The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Demeclocycline (c) oxytetracycine (d) Doxycycline
Description : Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic (a) Demeclocycline (b) Methacycline (c) Minocycline (d) Doxycycline
Description : Regarding the antibacterial action of gentamicin, which one of the following statements is most accurate? (a) Efficacy is directly proportionate to the time that the plasma level of the drug is ... an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis (e) The antibacterial action of gentamicin is time - dependent
Description : Chloramphenicol is particularly effective in the treatment of (a) Diphtheria (b) Tuberculosis (c) Emphysema (d) Rickettsial diseases (e) Streptomyces pyogenes infections
Description : The most important mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is (a) Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell (b) Acquisition of a plasmid encoded ... bacterial ribosome for chloramphenicol (d) Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial protein synthesis
Description : Which out of the following antibiotics penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best (a) Erythromycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Tetracycline (d) Chloramphenicol
Description : Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against (a) Bateroides fragilis (b) Treponema pallidum (c) Streptococci (d) Staphylococci
Description : An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ? (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Tetracycline (c) Erythromycin (d) Genetamicin
Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin
Description : Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat with both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection: A. Clarithromycin B. Clindamycin C. Linezolid D. Lincomycin
Last Answer : C. Linezolid
Description : Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the ... neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient ... chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline
Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci
Description : The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade
Description : The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves (a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Inhibition of translocase activity (c) Blockade of binding of ... (d) Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases (e) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Description : Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Vancomycin D. Clindamycin
Last Answer : D. Clindamycin
Description : Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because (a) It kills bacteria that are not killed by-moxicillin (b) It reduces renal clearance of amoxicillin (c) It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin (d) It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except (a) Gastrointestinal tract (b) Kidney (c) Skin (d) Nervous system
Description : Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if ... (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential
Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is (a) Nausea and vomiting (b) Loose motions (c) Constipation (d) Urticaria
Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following common property (a) They are primarily active against gramnegative bacilli (b) They are more active in acidic medium (c) They readily enter cells and are distributed in total body water (d) They are nearly completely metabolized in liver
Description : What are the side effects of azithromycin ?
Last Answer : Side effects of azithromycin may include loss of appetite , nausea, loss of sleep , kidney , liver failure and many other problems.
Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia
Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency
Description : What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs
Last Answer : B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression
Description : The resting membrane potential of a cell a. is dependent on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater than the permeability to Na+ b. falls to zero immediately when Na+ ... the equilibrium potential for Na+ e. is markedly altered if the extracellular Na+ concentration is increased
Last Answer : is dependent on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater than the permeability to Na+
Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol
Last Answer : A. Pindolol
Description : Are camel red blood cells nucleated?
Last Answer : The red blood cells of all mammals, without exception, are anucleated (lacking a nucleus). Mammal RBCs are nucleated only during embryonic stages. The red blood cells of camels are oval instead of round so they can withstand the effects of water deprivation better.
Description : Frogs differ from humans in possessing (a) paired cerebral hemispheres (b) hepatic portal system (c) nucleated red blood cells (d) thyroid as well as parathyroid
Last Answer : (c) nucleated red blood cells
Description : . MHC class I proteins would be found on___________ whereas MHC class II proteins would be found on_____________ a. Nucleated Cells; Plasma Cells b. Nucleated Cells; Macrophages c. Dendritic Cells; Neutrophils d. Only White Blood Cells; Red Blood Cells
Last Answer : b. Nucleated Cells; Macrophages
Description : A hypochromic microcytic anemia with increased iron stores in the bone marrow may be (A) Iron responsive (B) Pyridoxine responsive (C) Vitamin B12 responsive (D) Folate responsive
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellular(MAI)? (a) Vancomycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Erythromycin base (d) Troleandomycin (e) Erythromycin estolate
Description : A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy? (a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h (b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h (c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h (d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h (e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h
Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli