The mechanism of action of cyclosporine involves (a) Activation of calcineurin (b) Binding to cyclophilin to cause inhibition of a cytoplasmic phosphatase (c) Blockade of interleukin – 2- receptors (d) Inhibition of phospholipase A2 (e) Suppression of bone marrow progenitors

The mechanism of action of cyclosporine involves (a) Activation of calcineurin (b) Binding to cyclophilin to cause inhibition of a cytoplasmic phosphatase (c) Blockade of interleukin – 2- receptors (d) Inhibition of phospholipase A2 (e) Suppression of bone marrow progenitors
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The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves (a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Inhibition of translocase activity (c) Blockade of binding of aminoacyl – tRNA to bacterial ribosomes (d) Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases (e) Inhibition of DNA–dependent RNA polymerase

Description : The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves (a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Inhibition of translocase activity (c) Blockade of binding of ... (d) Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases (e) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Last Answer : Ans: C

In patients with chronic granulomatous disease which of the following agents increases the synthesis of tumor necrosis factor, leading to activation of phagocytosis? (a) Aldesleukin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Filgrastim (d) Infliximab (e) Interferon gamma

Description : In patients with chronic granulomatous disease which of the following agents increases the synthesis of tumor necrosis factor, leading to activation of phagocytosis? (a) Aldesleukin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Filgrastim (d) Infliximab (e) Interferon gamma

Last Answer : Ans: E

The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of acetylcholine released from motor nerve endings to a wider area activating neighbouring receptors C. Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above

Description : The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of ... Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of acetylcholine released from motor nerve endings to a wider area activating neighbouring receptors C. Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above

Description : The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of ... Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline cause which one of the following? (a) Vasoconstriction in many vascular beds (b) Decrease in the amount of cAMP in mast cells (c) Bronchodilation (d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (e) Sedation

Description : Methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline cause which one of the following? (a) Vasoconstriction in many vascular beds (b) Decrease in the amount of cAMP in mast cells (c) Bronchodilation (d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (e) Sedation

Last Answer : Ans: C

TThe most important mechanism of antiinflammatory action of glucocorticoids is: A. Inhibition of lysosomal enzymes B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation C. Antagonism of action of interleukins D. Suppression of complement function

Description : The most important mechanism of antiinflammatory action of glucocorticoids is: A. Inhibition of lysosomal enzymes B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation C. Antagonism of action of interleukins D. Suppression of complement function

Last Answer : B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation

a2–adrenergic receptors are associated with following except (a) Increase in phospholipase C activity (b) Increase in potassium channel conductance (c) Decrease in calcium channel conductance (d) Increase in adenylyl cyclase activity

Description : a2–adrenergic receptors are associated with following except (a) Increase in phospholipase C activity (b) Increase in potassium channel conductance (c) Decrease in calcium channel conductance (d) Increase in adenylyl cyclase activity

Last Answer : Ans: D

Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure than after it C. It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity

Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase results in (a) Abolition of NaHCO3 reabsorption in proximal tubule (b) Enhanced of NaHCO3 reabsorption in proximal tubule (c) Enhanced NAHCO3 secretion in distal tubule (d) None of the above

Description : Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase results in (a) Abolition of NaHCO3 reabsorption in proximal tubule (b) Enhanced of NaHCO3 reabsorption in proximal tubule (c) Enhanced NAHCO3 secretion in distal tubule (d) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of male impotence and activates prostaglandin E1 receptors? (a) Alprostadil (b) Fluoxetine (c) Mifepristone (d) Sildenafil (e) Zafirlukast

Description : Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of male impotence and activates prostaglandin E1 receptors? (a) Alprostadil (b) Fluoxetine (c) Mifepristone (d) Sildenafil (e) Zafirlukast

Last Answer : Ans: A

Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above

Description : Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time

Description : Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time

Last Answer : B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition

When compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins have (a) Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa relative to Iia (thrombin) (b) Shorter half-lives (c) Dose – dependent renal clearance

Description : When compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins have (a) Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa relative to Iia (thrombin) (b) Shorter half-lives (c) Dose – dependent renal clearance

Last Answer : Ans: A

The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of esterases that hydrolyze the lactone ring (c) Increased activity of efflux mechanisms (d) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane

Description : The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of ... ) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane

Last Answer : Ans: A

Lysolecithin is formed from lecithin by the action of (A) Phospholipase A1 (B) Phospholipase A2 (C) Phospholipase C (D) Phospholipase D

Description : Lysolecithin is formed from lecithin by the action of (A) Phospholipase A1 (B) Phospholipase A2 (C) Phospholipase C (D) Phospholipase D

Last Answer : Answer : B

Platelet activating factor is: a. Generated by the action of phospholipase A2 on membrane phospholipids b. Antiinflammatory in most of its actions c. Synthesized by endothelial and other cells d. Exerts a variety of biologic effects which are platelet-independent

Description : Platelet activating factor is: a. Generated by the action of phospholipase A2 on membrane phospholipids b. Antiinflammatory in most of its actions c. Synthesized by endothelial and other cells d. Exerts a variety of biologic effects which are platelet-independent

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Like the eicosanoids, platelet-activating factor (PAF) is not stored in cells but is rapidly produced during inflammation. PAF exerts a variety of biologic effects ... and LTB4. There is considerable overlap and redundancy in the effects produced by PAF and eicosanoids

Which one of the following drugs increase digoxin plasma concentration by a pharmacokinetic mechanism? (a) Captopril (b) Hydrochorothiazide (c) Lidocaine (d) Quinidine (e) Sulfasalazine

Description : Which one of the following drugs increase digoxin plasma concentration by a pharmacokinetic mechanism? (a) Captopril (b) Hydrochorothiazide (c) Lidocaine (d) Quinidine (e) Sulfasalazine

Last Answer : Ans: D

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b) and (c) Ans: D 68. In heart, potassium channels determine (a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is (a) Increase in total coronary blood flow (b) Redistribution of coronary blood flow (c) Reduction of cardiac preload (d) Reduction of cardiac after load

Description : The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is (a) Increase in total coronary blood flow (b) Redistribution of coronary blood flow (c) Reduction of cardiac preload (d) Reduction of cardiac after load

Last Answer : Ans: C

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (or PMNs) A- can be attracted to the site of an infection following activation of complement B- are derived from bone marrow stem cells C- are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill bacteria D- .all of the above

Description : Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (or PMNs) A- can be attracted to the site of an infection following activation of complement B- are derived from bone marrow stem cells C- are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill bacteria D- .all of the above

Last Answer : .all of the above

he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Description : he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and ... of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Last Answer : B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombi

The action of digitalis is enhanced by (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Chloride

Description : The action of digitalis is enhanced by (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Chloride

Last Answer : Ans: B

The action of quinidine differs from that of digitalis in (a) Decreasing irritability of cardiac muscle (b) Preventing passage of impulses to the ventricle (c) Increasing irritability of heart muscle (d) Reducing conductivity (e) None of the above

Description : The action of quinidine differs from that of digitalis in (a) Decreasing irritability of cardiac muscle (b) Preventing passage of impulses to the ventricle (c) Increasing irritability of heart muscle (d) Reducing conductivity (e) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) Relaxes vascular smooth muscle (d) Slows the depolarization phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: B

Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of cytokines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides. Prostaglandins involved in inflammatory processes are produced from arachidonic acid by (a) Cyclooxygenase 1 (b) Cyclooxygenase 2 (c) Glutathione – S – transferase (d) Lipoxygenase (e) Phospholipase A2

Description : Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of cytokines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides. Prostaglandins involved in inflammatory processes are produced from arachidonic acid by (a) ... 2 (c) Glutathione - S - transferase (d) Lipoxygenase (e) Phospholipase A2

Last Answer : Ans: B

Anthelmintic action of piperazine is due to: A. Interference with ATP generation in the worm B. Blockade of glucose uptake by the worm C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action D. Depolarization of nematode muscle by activating nicotinic receptors

Description : Anthelmintic action of piperazine is due to: A. Interference with ATP generation in the worm B. Blockade of glucose uptake by the worm C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action D. Depolarization of nematode muscle by activating nicotinic receptors

Last Answer : C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade

Description : The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade

Last Answer : Ans: B

Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina

Description : Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina

Last Answer : Ans: A

Following statement is true about lidocaine (a) Reduce the slope of Phase 4 (b) Threshold excitability is not altered (c) Action potential is not affected (d) All of the above

Description : Following statement is true about lidocaine (a) Reduce the slope of Phase 4 (b) Threshold excitability is not altered (c) Action potential is not affected (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

In cardiac cells, adenosine (a) Causes shortening of action potential duration (b) Depolarization (c) Increase in normal automaticity (d) All of the above

Description : In cardiac cells, adenosine (a) Causes shortening of action potential duration (b) Depolarization (c) Increase in normal automaticity (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels (a) They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow (b) They preferentially dilate conducting arteries without affecting resistance arterioles (c) They preferentially dilate autoregulatory arterioles without affecting the larger arteries (d) They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Description : Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels (a) They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow (b) They preferentially dilate conducting ... the larger arteries (d) They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Last Answer : Ans: B

Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues little myocardial depression and hypotension (c) It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: D

During Phase 2 of action potential in cardiac cell, depolarizing current through calcium channels is balanced by (a) Delayed rectifier potassium current (b) outward chloride channel (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

Description : During Phase 2 of action potential in cardiac cell, depolarizing current through calcium channels is balanced by (a) Delayed rectifier potassium current (b) outward chloride channel (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

Following potassium sparing diuretic inhibits action of aldosterone (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above

Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic inhibits action of aldosterone (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

Drugs used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include (a) Beclomethasone (b) Cromolyn sodium (c) Ipratropium (d) Metaproterenol (e) All of the above

Description : Drugs used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include (a) Beclomethasone (b) Cromolyn sodium (c) Ipratropium (d) Metaproterenol (e) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.

Description : Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (c) ... epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.

Last Answer : (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

A 25 years old school teacher Para 1 wants to use oral contraceptive pills for contraception. She is asking about the mode of action of oral contraceptive pills. The mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills is: a) Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH. b) Inducing endometrial atrophy. c) Increasing cervical mucous hostility. d) Inducing endometritis. e) Inhibiting prolactin.

Description : A 25 years old school teacher Para 1 wants to use oral contraceptive pills for contraception. She is asking about the mode of action of oral contraceptive pills. The mechanism of action of ... atrophy. c) Increasing cervical mucous hostility. d) Inducing endometritis. e) Inhibiting prolactin.

Last Answer : a) Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH.

Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs, such as aspirin act by inhibiting the activity of the enzyme: (A) Lipoxygenase (B) Cyclooxygenase (C) Phospholipase A2 (D) Lipoprotein lipase

Description : Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs, such as aspirin act by inhibiting the activity of the enzyme: (A) Lipoxygenase (B) Cyclooxygenase (C) Phospholipase A2 (D) Lipoprotein lipase

Last Answer : Answer : B

Phospholipase A2 is an enzyme which removes a fatty acid residue from lecithin to form (A) Lecithin fragments (B) Phosphotidic acid (C) Glyceryl phosphate (D) Lysolecithin

Description : Phospholipase A2 is an enzyme which removes a fatty acid residue from lecithin to form (A) Lecithin fragments (B) Phosphotidic acid (C) Glyceryl phosphate (D) Lysolecithin

Last Answer : Answer : D

Anti-inflammatory corticosteroids inhibit (A) Phospholipase A1 (B) Phospholipase A2 (C) Cyclo-oxygenase (D) Lipo-oxygenase

Description : Anti-inflammatory corticosteroids inhibit (A) Phospholipase A1 (B) Phospholipase A2 (C) Cyclo-oxygenase (D) Lipo-oxygenase

Last Answer : Answer : B

Phenylbutazone and indomethacin inhibit (A) Phospholipase A1 (B) Phospholipase A2 (C) Cyclo-oxygenase (D) Lipo-oxygenase

Description : Phenylbutazone and indomethacin inhibit (A) Phospholipase A1 (B) Phospholipase A2 (C) Cyclo-oxygenase (D) Lipo-oxygenase

Last Answer : Answer : C

A ’suicide enzyme’ is (A) Cycloxygenase (B) Lipooxygenase (C) Phospholipase A1 (D) Phospholipase A2

Description : A ’suicide enzyme’ is (A) Cycloxygenase (B) Lipooxygenase (C) Phospholipase A1 (D) Phospholipase A2

Last Answer : Answer : A

Aspirin inhibits the activity of the enzyme: (A) Lipoxygenase (B) Cyclooxygenase (C) Phospholipae A1 (D) Phospholipase A2

Description : Aspirin inhibits the activity of the enzyme: (A) Lipoxygenase (B) Cyclooxygenase (C) Phospholipae A1 (D) Phospholipase A2

Last Answer : Answer : B

The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Description : The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : Ans: C

The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and LH release C. Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Description : The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and ... Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Last Answer : B. Suppression of FSH and LH release

Virus infected cells produce a set of cytokine proteins called _____ that "alert" surrounding cells to the viral threat. a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) b. Interferon. c. Toll Like Receptors (TLR) d. Acute Phase Proteins

Description : Virus infected cells produce a set of cytokine proteins called _____ that "alert" surrounding cells to the viral threat. a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) b. Interferon. c. Toll Like Receptors (TLR) d. Acute Phase Proteins

Last Answer : b. Interferon.

The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Description : The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Last Answer : Ans: D