Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice for management of cardiac arrhythmias that occur in digitalis toxicity? (a) Amiodarone (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Sotalol (e) Prazosin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases cardiac contractility? (a) Digoxin (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Quinidine (e) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Organic nitrates relax vascular smooth muscle by (a) Increasing intracellular cyclic AMP (b) Increasing intracellular cyclic GMP (c) Decreasing intracellular cyclic AMP (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : The action of digitalis is enhanced by (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Chloride
Description : Overuse of digitalis may result in (a) Habituation (b) Tolerance (c) Addiction (d) Physical dependence (e) Cummulative poisoning
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Which of the following agents has a direct effect on the AV mode, delaying calciumchannel depolarization? (a) Lidocaine (b) Diltiazem (c) Bretylium (d) Quinidine (e) Lbutilide
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol
Description : Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide
Description : Which one of the following drugs increase digoxin plasma concentration by a pharmacokinetic mechanism? (a) Captopril (b) Hydrochorothiazide (c) Lidocaine (d) Quinidine (e) Sulfasalazine
Description : Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension ... (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia
Description : Which of the following drugs is preferred for termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (a) Digoxin (b) Quinidine (c) Propranolol (d) Verapamil
Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias
Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles
Description : In cardiac cells, adenosine (a) Causes shortening of action potential duration (b) Depolarization (c) Increase in normal automaticity (d) All of the above
Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : During Phase 2 of action potential in cardiac cell, depolarizing current through calcium channels is balanced by (a) Delayed rectifier potassium current (b) outward chloride channel (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Description : The term ischemic heart disease (IHD) is used to designate all of the following conditions except (a) Angina pectoris (b) Sudden cardiac death (c) Congestive heart failur (CHF) (d) Arrhythmias
Description : Digitalis slows the heart in congestive heart failure by: A. Increasing vagal tone B. Decreasing sympathetic overactivity C. Direct depression of sinoatrial node D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias
Description : Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels (a) They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow (b) They preferentially dilate conducting ... the larger arteries (d) They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow
Description : The chief use of levoarterenol is to treat (a) Shock (b) Diabetes (c) Hypertension (d) Cardiac arrhythmias (e) Iron deficiencies
Description : Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide
Description : Potassium therapy tends to counteract the cardiac toxicity of digitalis by: A. Reducing the affinity of sarcolemal Na+ K+ATPase for digitalis B. Suppressing ectopic automaticity enhanced by digitalis C. Promoting A-V conduction D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation
Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility
Description : Cardiac glycosides are obtained from following plant source. (a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Strophanthus gratus (c) Ricinus commounts. (d) Atropa belladonna
Description : Enhanced automaticity in cardiac cells may occur because of (a) ß-adrenergic stimulation (b) Hypokalemia (c) Mechanical stretch of cardiac muscles (d) All of the above
Description : The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is (a) Increase in total coronary blood flow (b) Redistribution of coronary blood flow (c) Reduction of cardiac preload (d) Reduction of cardiac after load
Description : Relationship between arterial blood pressure (BP), cardiac outpur (CO) and peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) can be described as (a) BP = COxPVR (b) BP = CO/PVR (c) BP = PVR/CO (d) None of the above
Description : Impulses from the pace -maker cause the (a) ventricles to contract (b) auricles to contract (c) both the ventricle and auricle to contract (d) heart to relax
Last Answer : Ans:(b)
Description : Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of (A) Potassium (B) Quinidine (C) Diuretics (D) Antacids
Last Answer : Ans. B & C
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The mechanism of action of cyclosporine involves (a) Activation of calcineurin (b) Binding to cyclophilin to cause inhibition of a cytoplasmic phosphatase (c) Blockade of interleukin – 2- receptors (d) Inhibition of phospholipase A2 (e) Suppression of bone marrow progenitors
Description : Six months after beginning atorvastatin, the patient's total and LDL cholesterol concentrations remained above normal and he continued to have anginal attacks despite good adherence to his antianginal ... Increased endocytosis of HDL by the liver (e) Increased lipid hydrolysis by lipoprotein lipase
Description : For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min
Description : When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return
Description : Which of the following groups of symptoms is most often associated with a patient who has right-sided heart failure? (a) Nocturia, rales, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (b) Paroxysmal ... distention (e) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, jugular venous distention, abdominal distention, shortness of breath
Description : In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above
Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium
Description : Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina
Description : Following statement is true about lidocaine (a) Reduce the slope of Phase 4 (b) Threshold excitability is not altered (c) Action potential is not affected (d) All of the above
Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic inhibits action of aldosterone (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above
Description : Major beneficial effect of nitrates in classical angina is due to (a) Dilation of veins more than arteries (b) Increase in total coronary blood flow (c) An increase in the end diastolic size of the heart (d) An increase in the heart rate
Description : Mary has a family history of heart disease and wonders if garlic would be beneficial to her. Which of the following statements is correct about garlic? (a) Enteric-coated tablets release their contents in ... (c) The safety of garlic in pregnancy is unknown (d) Garlic does not interact with warfarin
Description : Which of the following terms indicates the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each contraction of the heart? a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out ( ... d) Preload Preload is the pressure created by a volume of blood within a ventricle before contraction.
Last Answer : a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out (ejected) with each contraction of the heart (heart beat). Stroke volume times heart rate equals cardiac output.
Description : Which of the following terms describes the amount of blood ejected per heartbeat? a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is determined by preload, afterload, and contractility. b) Cardiac output Cardiac output ... must overcome to eject blood during systole and is one of the determinants of stroke volume.
Last Answer : a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is determined by preload, afterload, and contractility.