Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Amiodarone
Description : Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with: A. Amiodarone B. Mexiletine C. Sotalol D. Procainamide
Last Answer : A. Amiodarone
Description : Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with (a) Procainamide (b) Mexiletine (c) Sotalol (d) Amiodarone
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine
Last Answer : A. Disopyramide
Description : Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone
Last Answer : A. Lignocaine
Description : Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium
Last Answer : A. Propranolol
Description : Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class III antiarrhythmic agent that is effective in the acute management of atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter of recent onset ? (a) Bretylium (b) Lbutilide (c) Metoprolol (d) Disopyramide
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol
Description : Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide
Description : Which of the following has the longest half-life of all antiarrhythmic drugs? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Flecainide
Description : A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Flecainide (d) Propranolol (e) Quinidine
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Why should care be taken when prescribing warfarin and amiodarone in combination? A. Amiodarone and warfarin both have an anticoagulant effect. B. Amiodarone may reverse the anticoagulant ... anticoagulant effect of warfarin. D. Warfarin may reverse the antiarrhythmic effect of amiodarone.
Last Answer : C. Amiodarone may increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
Description : Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide
Last Answer : C. Esmolo
Description : Select the drug which is an ‘inodilator’ beneficial in refractory congestive heart failure: A. Nicorandil B. Amiodarone C. Amrinone D. Carvedilol
Last Answer : C. Amrinone
Description : The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it ... erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine
Description : Granisetron is a: A. Second generation antihistaminic B. Drug for peptic ulcer C. Antiemetic for cancer chemotherapy D. New antiarrhythmic drug
Last Answer : C. Antiemetic for cancer chemotherapy
Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone
Last Answer : A. Mexiletine
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about dofetilide: A. It is a pure class III antiarrhythmic B. It has no adrenergic/cholinergic receptor blocking property C. It selectively depresses the rapid component of delayed rectifier K+ current in myocardial fibres D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness
Last Answer : A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci
Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension
Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity
Description : The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period
Last Answer : A. Na+ channel blockade
Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice for management of cardiac arrhythmias that occur in digitalis toxicity? (a) Amiodarone (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Sotalol (e) Prazosin
Description : When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, Lidocaine typically (a) Increases action potential duration (b) Increases contractility (c) Increses PR interval (d) Reduces abnormal automaticity (e) Reduces resting potential
Description : Which of the following agents has a direct effect on the AV mode, delaying calciumchannel depolarization? (a) Lidocaine (b) Diltiazem (c) Bretylium (d) Quinidine (e) Lbutilide
Description : If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period
Last Answer : B. Its clearance value will remain constant
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above
Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects
Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic
Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance
Last Answer : D. Total body clearance
Description : Low uptake of 123I on the thyroid uptake scan would be an expected finding in: 1) A solitary toxic nodule 2) A multi-nodular toxic goitre 3) Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis type 1 4) DeQuervain's thyroiditis 5) Graves' thyrotoxicosis
Last Answer : Answers-4 DeQuervain's thyroiditis is classically associated with low or absent 123I (the 131 radioactive isotope of iodine) uptake. The others will have high or normal uptake. In particular type ... may be distinguished from the thyroiditis of type 2 by the normal or high uptake scan.
Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes
Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin
Description : Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias
Last Answer : B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF
Description : The following drug is used for short-term control of emergency heart failure, but not for long-term treatment of congestive heart failure: A. Digoxin B. Ramipril C. Dobutamine D. Spironolactone
Last Answer : C. Dobutamine
Description : A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long
Last Answer : B. 6-12 months
Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit
Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence
Description : The antipsychotic drug most likely to cause ocular toxicity on long-term use is: A. Thioridazine B. Haloperidol C. Flupenthixol D. Pimozide
Last Answer : A. Thioridazine
Description : The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia
Last Answer : B. Tardive dyskinesia
Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes
Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus
Description : Can anyone give me a Scientific explanation for the way snow neatly accumulates on railings ?
Last Answer : Well, gravity makes it fall from the sky. It collects as long as it can hang together, but there comes a point at which it falls off the sides.
Description : Which cell of phloem accumulates callus in winter ?
Last Answer : : Calcium accumulates in the sival cells of phloem in winter.
Description : How many grams of urine accumulates in the bladder, the speed of our urine ?
Last Answer : : Urine velocity is obtained only when 400 g to 500 g of urine accumulates in the bladder of an adult human .
Description : What is a material that accumulates at the bottom of a steep slope?
Last Answer : The general term for material that falls down and gathers at the foot of a steep cliff or mountain face is scree.
Description : All of the following statements about generalized gangliosidosis are true except (A) It results from deficiency of GM1-βGangliosidase (B) Breakdown of GM1 ganglioside is impaired (C) GM2 ganglioside accumulates in liver and elsewhere (D) It leads to mental retardation
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : Nicotine content accumulates in which part of tobacco?
Last Answer : Ans.Leaves (IV) Cropping and Farming system
Description : The phlegm that accumulates in the bronchi and cleared during coughing is (a) stratified squamous epithelium (b) stratified columnar epithelium (c) simple columnar ciliated epithelium (d) pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium
Last Answer : Ans:(a)