Description : Select the drug which reduces cholesterol synthesis in liver, increases expression of LDL receptors on hepatocytes and has been found to reduce mortality due to coronary artery disease: A. Simvastatin B. Nicotinic acid C. Gemfibrozil D. Colestipol (
Last Answer : A. Simvastatin
Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A 54-year-old woman with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of (a) Agranulocytosis (b) Gallstones (c) Lactic acidosis (d) Myopathy (e) Thyrotoxicosis
Description : A patient with coronary artery disease has raised serum triglyceride level (500 mg/dl) but normal total cholesterol level (150 mg/dl). Which hypolipidemic drug should be prescribed: A. Probucol B. Gemfibrozil C. Cholestyramine D. Lovastatin
Last Answer : B. Gemfibrozil
Description : In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above
Description : Six months after beginning atorvastatin, the patient's total and LDL cholesterol concentrations remained above normal and he continued to have anginal attacks despite good adherence to his antianginal ... Increased endocytosis of HDL by the liver (e) Increased lipid hydrolysis by lipoprotein lipase
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : The following is true of simvastatin except: A. It is more potent than lovastatin B. At the highest recommended dose, it causes greater LDL-cholesterol lowering than lovastatin C. It does not undergo ... metabolism in liver D. It can raise HDL-cholesterol level when the same is low at base line
Last Answer : C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism in liver
Description : Choose the most potent and most efficacious LDLcholesterol lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor: A. Lovastatin B. Simvastatin C. Pravastatin D. Atorvastatin
Last Answer : D. Atorvastatin
Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina ? (a) Digoxin (b) Furosemide (c) Enalapril (d) Amrinone
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Choose the correct statement about lovastatin: A. It markedly lowers plasma triglyceride with little effect on cholesterol level B. It is used as an adjuvant to gemfibrozil for type III ... hypercholesterolemia D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis
Last Answer : D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis
Description : Select the hypocholesterolemic drug which interferes with intestinal absorption of bile salts and cholesterol, and secondarily increases cholesterol turnover in the liver: A. Gemfibrozil B. Cholestyramine C. Lovastatin D. Bezafibrate
Last Answer : B. Cholestyramine
Description : Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide
Description : Which of the following combinations of drugs, when used together, reduce both preload and afterload? (a) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate (b) Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (c) Captopril and methyldopa (d) Prazosin and angiotension II (e) Hydralazine and methyldopa
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol
Description : Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases cardiac contractility? (a) Digoxin (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Quinidine (e) Verapamil
Description : Drugs used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include (a) Beclomethasone (b) Cromolyn sodium (c) Ipratropium (d) Metaproterenol (e) All of the above
Description : Methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline cause which one of the following? (a) Vasoconstriction in many vascular beds (b) Decrease in the amount of cAMP in mast cells (c) Bronchodilation (d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (e) Sedation
Description : Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of male impotence and activates prostaglandin E1 receptors? (a) Alprostadil (b) Fluoxetine (c) Mifepristone (d) Sildenafil (e) Zafirlukast
Description : Which one of the following drugs increase digoxin plasma concentration by a pharmacokinetic mechanism? (a) Captopril (b) Hydrochorothiazide (c) Lidocaine (d) Quinidine (e) Sulfasalazine
Description : For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min
Description : When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return
Description : Which of the following groups of symptoms is most often associated with a patient who has right-sided heart failure? (a) Nocturia, rales, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (b) Paroxysmal ... distention (e) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, jugular venous distention, abdominal distention, shortness of breath
Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias
Description : A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to ... ) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over - the - counter decongestants
Description : After being counseled about lifestyle and dietary changes, the patient was started on atorvastatin. During his treatment with atorvastatin, it is important to routinely monitor serum concentrations of (a) ... Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase (c) Platelets (d) Red blood cells (e) Uric acid
Description : Which of the following drugs is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility ? (a) Cyclandelate (b) Theophyline (c) Pentoxiphyline (d) Nicotinic acid
Description : Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener ? (a) Pinacidil (b) Hydralazine (c) Glibenclamide (d) Amiloride
Description : Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits (a) Terminate anginal attacks (b) Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks (c) Retard the progression of coronary artery disease (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Which of the following drugs is preferred for termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (a) Digoxin (b) Quinidine (c) Propranolol (d) Verapamil
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class III antiarrhythmic agent that is effective in the acute management of atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter of recent onset ? (a) Bretylium (b) Lbutilide (c) Metoprolol (d) Disopyramide
Description : Following drugs act on imidazoline receptor (a) Moxonidine (b) Dexmedetomidine (c) Tizanidine (d) All of the above
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate
Description : A patient suffers from spisodic pain diffusely localized over the chest and upper abdomen, which is relieved by sublingual glyceryl trinitrate. He could be suffering from (a) Angina pectoris (b) Biliary colic (c) Esophageal spasm (d) All of the above
Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion
Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles
Description : A patient on oral anticoagulant therapy is commenced on sulfamethoxazoletrimethoprim, double-strength twice daily. One may expect to see the international normalized ratio (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain unchanged
Description : A patient to be commenced on oral anticoagulant therapy for DVT would be treated with (a) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal intenational normalized ration (INR) of 2-3 (b) Oral anticoagulant therapy ... of 2.5-3.5 (c) Oral anticoagulant therapy with aspirin for a goal INR of 2-3
Description : Situations that predispose a digitalistreated patient to toxicity include (a) Hypercalcemia (b) Hyperkalemia (c) Hypermagnesemia
Description : If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia
Description : Mary has a family history of heart disease and wonders if garlic would be beneficial to her. Which of the following statements is correct about garlic? (a) Enteric-coated tablets release their contents in ... (c) The safety of garlic in pregnancy is unknown (d) Garlic does not interact with warfarin
Description : Adrenergic β1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity
Last Answer : C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris
Description : Adrenergic β 1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity
Description : Tolerance to nitroglycerin may be overcome by (a) Initially using the largest safe dose of the drug (b) Using other nitrites (c) Temporarily discontinuing the drug for one or two weeks (d) Use of higher doses (e) None of the above
Description : The chief use of levoarterenol is to treat (a) Shock (b) Diabetes (c) Hypertension (d) Cardiac arrhythmias (e) Iron deficiencies
Description : Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels? (a) Trimethadione (b) Clofibrate (c) Flucytosine (d) Coumarin (e) Propranolol
Description : In case of acute pain of angina pectoris the most effective treatment would be to administer (a) Mannitol hexanitrate (b) Erythrityl tetranitrate (c) Sodium nitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate (e) Nitroglycerin
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : The action of digitalis is enhanced by (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Chloride
Description : Overuse of digitalis may result in (a) Habituation (b) Tolerance (c) Addiction (d) Physical dependence (e) Cummulative poisoning