Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice for management of cardiac arrhythmias that occur in digitalis toxicity? (a) Amiodarone (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Sotalol (e) Prazosin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The term ischemic heart disease (IHD) is used to designate all of the following conditions except (a) Angina pectoris (b) Sudden cardiac death (c) Congestive heart failur (CHF) (d) Arrhythmias
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : The action of quinidine differs from that of digitalis in (a) Decreasing irritability of cardiac muscle (b) Preventing passage of impulses to the ventricle (c) Increasing irritability of heart muscle (d) Reducing conductivity (e) None of the above
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension ... (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide
Description : Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases cardiac contractility? (a) Digoxin (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Quinidine (e) Verapamil
Description : Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation
Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility
Description : Cardiac glycosides are obtained from following plant source. (a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Strophanthus gratus (c) Ricinus commounts. (d) Atropa belladonna
Description : In cardiac cells, adenosine (a) Causes shortening of action potential duration (b) Depolarization (c) Increase in normal automaticity (d) All of the above
Description : Enhanced automaticity in cardiac cells may occur because of (a) ß-adrenergic stimulation (b) Hypokalemia (c) Mechanical stretch of cardiac muscles (d) All of the above
Description : The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is (a) Increase in total coronary blood flow (b) Redistribution of coronary blood flow (c) Reduction of cardiac preload (d) Reduction of cardiac after load
Description : During Phase 2 of action potential in cardiac cell, depolarizing current through calcium channels is balanced by (a) Delayed rectifier potassium current (b) outward chloride channel (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Description : Relationship between arterial blood pressure (BP), cardiac outpur (CO) and peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) can be described as (a) BP = COxPVR (b) BP = CO/PVR (c) BP = PVR/CO (d) None of the above
Description : A 65-year-old is interested in taking ginkgo. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ginkgo? (a) Ginkgo is contraindicated in diabetes and pregnancy (b) There is a ... drug-herb interaction between ginkgo and phenelzine (e) Ginkgo is contraindicated in patients with gallstone pain
Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.
Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.
Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C
Description : Relative to fexofenadine, diphenhydramine is more likely to (a) Be used for treatment of asthma (b) Be used for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (c) Cause cardiac arrhythmias in ... ) Have efficacy in the prevention of motion sickness (e) Increase the serum concentration of warfarin
Description : Potential adverse effects associated with aspirin include all of the following except (a) Gastrointestinal ulceration (b) Renal dysfunction (c) Enhanced methotrexate toxicity (d) Cardiac arrhythmias (e) Hypersensitivity asthma
Description : The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias
Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium
Description : The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias
Description : Tolerance to nitroglycerin may be overcome by (a) Initially using the largest safe dose of the drug (b) Using other nitrites (c) Temporarily discontinuing the drug for one or two weeks (d) Use of higher doses (e) None of the above
Description : Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide
Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias
Description : A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to ... ) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over - the - counter decongestants
Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics
Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias
Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension
Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity
Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response
Description : The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone
Last Answer : D. Increased vagal tone
Description : In a patient of myocardial infarction, β adrenergic blockers are used with the following aim/aims: A. To reduce the incidence of reinfarction B. To prevent cardiac arrhythmias C. To limit size of the infarct D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels? (a) Trimethadione (b) Clofibrate (c) Flucytosine (d) Coumarin (e) Propranolol
Description : In case of acute pain of angina pectoris the most effective treatment would be to administer (a) Mannitol hexanitrate (b) Erythrityl tetranitrate (c) Sodium nitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate (e) Nitroglycerin
Description : The action of digitalis is enhanced by (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Chloride
Description : Overuse of digitalis may result in (a) Habituation (b) Tolerance (c) Addiction (d) Physical dependence (e) Cummulative poisoning
Description : Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s) (a) Xa (b) Ixa (c) Iia (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Description : For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min
Description : When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return
Description : Which of the following combinations of drugs, when used together, reduce both preload and afterload? (a) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate (b) Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (c) Captopril and methyldopa (d) Prazosin and angiotension II (e) Hydralazine and methyldopa
Description : Which of the following groups of symptoms is most often associated with a patient who has right-sided heart failure? (a) Nocturia, rales, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (b) Paroxysmal ... distention (e) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, jugular venous distention, abdominal distention, shortness of breath
Description : Which of the following agents has a direct effect on the AV mode, delaying calciumchannel depolarization? (a) Lidocaine (b) Diltiazem (c) Bretylium (d) Quinidine (e) Lbutilide
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol
Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol
Description : Maximal medical therapy for treating angina pectoris is represented by which of the following choices? (a) Diltiazem, verapamil, nitroglycerin (b) Atenolol, isoproterenol, diltiazem (c) Verapamil, nifedipine, propranolol (d) Isosorbide, atenolol, diltiazem (e) Nitroglycerin, isosorbide, atenolol
Description : Which of the following agents used in prinzmetal’s angina has spasmolytic actions, which increase coronary blood supply? (a) Nitroglycerin (b) Nifedipine (c) Timolol (d) Isosorbide mononitrate (e) Propranolol
Description : Myocardial oxygen demand is increased by all of the following factors except (a) Exercise (b) Smoking (c) Cold temperatures (d) Isoproterenol (e) Propranolol
Description : Exertion–induced angina, which is relieved by rest, nitroglycerin, or both, is referred to as (a) Prinzmetal’s angina (b) Unstable angina (c) Classic angina (d) Variant angina (e) Preinfarction angina
Description : Which of the following cyclotron produced radiopharmaceuticals is used for assessing regional myocardial perfusion as part of an exercise stress test? (a) Thallous chloride 201TI USP (b) Sodium iodide 123I (c) Gallium citrate 67Ga USP (d) Indium 111In pentetate (e) Cobalt 57Co cyanocobalamin