Description : Phenylephrine (a) Mimics the transmitter at post-synaptic receptors (b) Displaces transmitter from axonal terminal (c) Inhibits synthesis of transmitter (d) None of the above
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of scopolamine ? (a) Irreversible antagonist at nicotinic receptors (b) Irreversible antagonist at muscarinic receptors (c) ... receptors (d) Reversible antagonist at muscarinic receptors (e) Reversible antagonist at nicotinic receptors
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : In the autonomic regulation of blood pressure (a) Cardiac output is maintained constant at the expense of other hemodynamic variables (b) Elevation of blood pressure results in elevated ... the sensitivity of the sensory baroreceptor nerve endings might cause an increase in sympathetic discharge
Description : Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that (a) It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors (b) It does not activate adrenergic ß receptors (c) It causes pronounced tachycardia (d) It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability
Description : a2–adrenergic receptors are associated with following except (a) Increase in phospholipase C activity (b) Increase in potassium channel conductance (c) Decrease in calcium channel conductance (d) Increase in adenylyl cyclase activity
Description : a1 – receptors are coupled with _______ G protein. (a) Gs (b) Gi (c) Gq (d) Go
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : The cardiac muscarinic receptors (a) Are of the M1 subtype (b) Are of the M2 subtype (c) Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine (d) Function through the PIP2 ? IP3/DAG pathway
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Muscarinic cholinergic receptors (a) Are located only on parasympathetically innervated effector cells (b) Mediate responses by opening an instrinsic Na+ ion channel (c) Are present on vascular endothelium which has no cholinergic nerve supply (d) Predominate in the autonomic ganglia
Description : Yohimbine is an antagonist of ______ receptors. (a) a1 (b) a2 (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Description : Characteristics of Vitamin D and its metabolites include which one of the following? (a) Act to decrease serum levels of calcium (b) Activation of their Vitamin D receptors increases cellular CAMP ... Vitamin D increase renal excretion of calcium (e) Vitamin D deficiency results in Pager's disease
Description : Oxytremorine is a selective agonist of muscarinic _______ receptors (a) M1 (b) M2 (c) M3 (d) M4
Description : Following is an antagonist of ganglion type nicotinic receptors (a) Tubercurarine (b) a-bungarotoxin (c) Trimethaphan (d) All of the above
Description : Which of the following is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors but may provoke anginal attacks? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : Guanethidine inhibits (a) Synthesis of transmitter (b) Metabolism of transmitter (c) Release of transmitter (d) Displacement of transmitter from axonal terminal
Description : The biochemical mechanism of action of digitalis is associated with (a) A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum (b) An increase in ATP synthesis (c) A modification of the actin molecule (d) An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels (e) A block of sodium/calcium exchange
Description : Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of: A. Continuous use of agonists B. Continuous use of antagonists C. Chronic use of CNS depressants D. Denervation
Last Answer : A. Continuous use of agonists
Description : A patient is admitted to the emergency room with orthostatic hypotension and evidence of marked GI bleeding. Which of the following most accurately describes the probable autonomic response to this ... constricted pupils, increased bowel sounds (e) Rapid heart rate, constricted pupils, warm skin
Description : In a patient given a cardiac glycoside, important effects of the drug on the heart include which of the following? (a) Decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity (b) Decreased ejection time (c) Increased ectopic automaticity (d) Increased ectopic automaticity (e) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can ... Increased atrial contractility (c) Increased PR interval on the ECG (d) Headaches (e) Tachycardia
Description : Choose the incorrect statement from the following (a) Sympathetic system increases rate of SA node (b) Sympathetic system causes constriction of coronary arteries (c) Sympathetic system causes increased motility of GIT smooth muscles (d) Sympathetic system causes constriction of sphincter in GIT
Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate
Description : Nitroglycerin, either directly or through reflexes, results in which one of the following effects (a) Decreased heart rate (b) Decreased venous capacitance (c) Increased afterload (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased diastolic intramyocardial fiber tension
Description : A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked ... has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol
Description : Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine? (a) Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium (b) Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine (c) Increased skeleton muscle ... by neostigmine (d) Tachycardia caused by exercise (e) Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine
Description : Atropine overdose may cause which one of the following (a) Gastrointestinal smooth muscle crampine (b) Increased cardiac rate (c) Increased gastric secretion (d) Pupillary constriction (e) Urinary frequency
Description : Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in maximal exercise, can produce all of the following responses except (a) Bronchial relaxation (b) Decreases intestinal motility (c) Increased renal blood flow (d) Mydriasis (e) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)
Description : Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline (a) Bronchodilation (b) Lipolysis (c) Muscle tremor (d) Mydriasis
Description : Propanolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with (a) Chronic neurotic disorer (b) Schizopherenia (c) Short-term stressful situation (d) Endogenous depression
Description : The ß-adrenergic blocker which possesses both ß1 selectivity as well as intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is (a) Alprenolol (b) Atenolol (c) Acebutolol (d) Metoprolol
Description : Which of the following is true of sildenafil (a) It enhances sexul enjoyment in normal men (b) It delays ejaculation (c) It is indicated only for treatment of erectile dysfunction in men (d) It blocks cavernosal a2 adrenoceptors
Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective a adrenergic blockers are not because (a) It is the only orally active a blocker (b) It improves plasma lipid profile (c) It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release (d) It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy
Description : The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an a adrenergic blocker is (a) Phenoxybenzamine (b) Ergotamine (c) Dihydroergotoxine (d) Tolazoline
Description : Vasoconstrictors should not be used in (a) Neurogenic shock (b) Haemorrhagic shock (c) Secondary shock (d) Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia
Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which of the following drugs can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP (a) Noradrenaline (b) Isoprenaline (c) Mephentermine (d) Isoxsuprine
Description : Continuous exposure of ctecholaminesensitive cells and tissues to adrenergic agonists causes a progressive diminition in their capacity to respond, this phenomenon is called as (a) Refractoriness (b) Desensitization (c) Tachyphylaxis (d) All of the above
Description : Ephedrine is similar to adrenaline in the following feature (a) Potency (b) Inability to penetrate blood-brain barrier (c) Duration of action (d) Producing both a and ß adrenergic effects
Description : Noradrenaline is administered by (a) Subcutaneous injection (b) Intramuscular injection (c) Slow intravenous infusion (d) All of the above routes
Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except (a) Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis (b) Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic ß cells (c) Augmenting glucagons secretion from pancreatic a cells (d) Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization
Description : Low doses of adrenaline dilate the following vascular bed (a) Cutaneous (b) Mucosal (c) Renal (d) Skeletal muscle
Description : A sympathomimetic amine that acts almost exclusively by releasing noradrenaline from the nerve endings is (a) Ephedrine (b) Dopamine (c) Isoprenaline (d) Tyramine
Description : Choose the correct statement from the following about a1 – adrenergic receptor agonists (a) Norepinephrine > isoproterenol > epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine < epinephrine > isoproterenol (c) Epinephrine = norepinephrine >> isoproterenol (d) Epinephrine > isoproterenol > norepinephrine
Description : Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings (a) By depolarizing the axonal membrane (b) By mobilizing Ca2+ (c) By a nonexocytotic process (d) Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors
Description : The most efficacious inhibitor of catecholamine synthesis in the body is (a) a - methyl – p - tyrosine (b) a - methyldopa (c) a - methyl - norepinephrine (d) Pyrogallol
Description : Select the correct statement from the following about a1 – adrenergic receptor agonists (a) Isoproterenol > epinephrine = norepinephrine (b) Epinephrine > isoproterenol > norepinephrine (c) Isoproterenol = epinephrine = norepinephrine (d) Epinephrine = norepinephrine > isoproterenol
Description : Atropine is contraindicated in (a) Cyclic AMP (b) Inositol trisphosphate (c) Diacyl glycerols (d) G protein
Description : The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is (a) Neostigmine (b) Physostigmine (c) Pilocarpine (d) Methacholine
Description : The most suitable mydratic for a patient of corneal ulcer is (a) Atropine sulfate (b) Homatropine (c) Cyclopentolate (d) Tropicamide
Description : Which of the following mydriatics has the fastest and briefest action ? (a) Atropine (b) Homatropine (c) Tropicamide (d) Cyclopentolate
Description : Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscannic drug for use before and during surgery because (a) It is potent and fast acting (b) It has no central action (c) It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions (d) All of the above