Description : An early feature of renal disease is (A) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work (B) Decrease in maximal tubular excretory capacity (C) Decrease in filtration factor (D) Decrease in renal plasma flow
Last Answer : A
Description : Para-amino hippurate excretion test is an indicator of (A) Glomerular filtration (B) Tubular secretion (C) Tubular reabsorption (D) Renal plasma flow
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : The Tm for PAH i.e the maximal secretory capacity of the tubule for PAH can be used to gavge the (A) Extent of tubular damage FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 81 (B) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work (C) Impairment of renal plasma flow (D) Glomerular filtration rate
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Measurement of insulin clearance test is a measure of (A) Glomerular filtration rate (B) Filtration factor (C) Renal plasma flow (D) Tubular secretory mass
Description : Filtration fraction can be calculated from (A) Standard urea clearance and PSP excretion (B) Maximum urea clearance and PSP excretion (C) Maximum urea clearance and PAH clearance (D) Inulin clearance and PAH clearance
Description : Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for (A) Effective renal blood flow (B) Renal drug excretion rate (C) Active renal secretion (D) Glomerular filtration rate
Last Answer : (D) Glomerular filtration rate
Description : Inulin clearance is a measure of (A) Glomerular filtration rate (B) Tubular secretion flow (C) Tubular reabsorption rate (D) Renal plasma flow
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : Creatinine EDTA clearance is a test to measure (A) Renal plasma flow (B) Filtration fraction (C) Glomerular filtration rate (D) Tubular function
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : Urea clearance test is used to determine the (A) Glomerular filtration rate (B) Renal plasma flow (C) Ability of kidney to concentrate the urine (D) Measurement of tubular mass
Description : Phenolsulphonephthalein excretion test is an indicator of (A) Glomerular filtration (B) Tubular secretion (C) Tubular reabsorption (D) Renal blood low
Description : The filtration factor is decreased in (A) Glomerulonephritis (B) Early essential hypertension (C) Malignant phase of hypertension (D) Starvation
Description : The filtration factor is increased in (A) Glomerulonephritis (B) Malignant phase of hypertension (C) Early essential hypertension (D) Acute nephritis
Description : The filtration factor tends to be normal in (A) Early essential hypertension (B) Malignant phase of hypertension (C) Glomerulonephritis (D) Acute nephritis
Description : If the GFR is 125 mL/min and the renal plasma flow is 700 mL/min, the filtration fraction is
Last Answer : If the GFR is 125 mL/min and the renal plasma flow is 700 mL/min, the filtration fraction is A. About 6% B. About 18% C. About 12% D. About 24%
Description : Filtration fraction is increased in (A) Acute glomerulonephritis (B) Chronic glomerulonephritis (C) Hypertension (D) Hypotension
Description : A 60-year-old man was diagnosed last year with adenocarcinoma of the lung, and a 4 cm mass lesion was treated with a right lower lobectomy. He now has an ... 2) Membranous glomerulonephritis 3) Minimal change glomerulonephritis 4) Nodular glomerulosclerosis 5) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Last Answer : Answers-2 Most cases of membranous GN are idiopathic, but in some patients there is a history of an infection or a malignancy (usually lung) with antigenemia.
Description : Among the following, a test of Glomerular function is (A) Urea clearance (B) PSP excretion test (C) PAH clearance (D) Hippuric acid excretion test
Description : Among the following, a test of tubular function is (A) Creatinine clearance (B) Inulin clearance (C) PAH clearance (D) PSP excretion test
Description : Impaired renal function is indicated when the amount of PSP excreted in the first 15 minutes is (A) 20% (B) 35% (C) 40% (D) 45%
Description : Renal plasma flow of an average adult man is (A) 120–130 ml/minute (B) 325–350 ml/minute (C) 480–52 ml/minute (D) 560–830 ml/minute
Description : The primary mechanism by which antidiuretic hormone reduces urine volume is: A. Decrease in glomerular filtration rate B. Decreased renal blood flow C. Decreased water permeability of descending limb of loop of Henle D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells
Last Answer : D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells
Description : During compensation of respiratory alkalosis, all the following changes occur except (A) Decreased secretion of hydrogen ions by renal tubules (B) Increased excretion of sodium in urine (C) Increased excretion of bicarbonate in urine (D) Increased excretion of ammonia in urine
Description : PTH (A) Reduces the renal clearance or excretion of calcium (B) Increases renal phosphate clearance (C) Increases the renal clearance of calcium (D) Decreases the renal phosphate clearance
Description : An important finding in glycinuria is (A) Excess excretion of oxalate in the urine (B) Deficiency of enzyme glycinase (C) Significantly increased serum glycine level (D) Defect in renal tubular reabsorption of glycine
Description : A 73 year old male presented with an acute attack of gout in his left knee. What is the most likely underlying metabolic cause? 1) decreased renal excretion of uric acid 2) endogenous overproduction of uric acid 3) excessive dietary purine intake 4) lactic acidosis 5) starvation
Last Answer : Answers-1 The aetiology of gout can broadly be divided into cases where there is underexcretion of urate via the kidney (90%) or endogenous overproduction of uric acid (10%) although in practical ... diuretic use. Excessive dietary intake of purines is unlikely to be the main cause in this case.
Description : Renal glycosuria occurs due to (A) Increased filtration of glucose in glomeruli (B) Increased secretion of glucose by renal tubular cells (C) Decreased reabsorption of glucose by renal tubular cells (D) Increased conversion of glycogen into glucose in tubular cells
Description : Which of the following is true concerning a 68 year old male with type 2 diabetes diagnosed with type IV renal tubal acidosis? 1) Aminoaciduria would be expected. 2) Fludrocortisone treatment is effective ... 4) Increased urinary bicarbonate would be expected. 5) Normal renal handling of K+ and H+
Last Answer : Answers-2 H+ secretion, sodium reabsorption and ammonia production diminishes. RTA 4 is in effect hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism or failure of aldosterone action and thus helped treated with ... particularly. Aminoaciduria and increased urine bicarbonate are features of RTA types 1 and 2.
Description : Do echinoderms have an excretory system? How is excretion done in these animals?
Last Answer : Echinoderms do not have an excretory system. Their excretions are eliminated by diffusion.
Description : Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label renal artery and urethra. State in brief the function of : renal artery kidney ureter urinary bladder -Biology
Last Answer : Answer. Renal artery: The renal artery carries blood to the kidneys from the abdominal aorta. This blood comes directly from the heart and is sent to the-kidneys to be filtered before it passes ... expandable muscular sac that stores urine before it is excreted out of the body through the urethra.
Description : Select the option which shows correct matching of animal with its excretory organ and excretory product. Animal Excretory Excretory organ product (a) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial Ammonia tubes (b) Salamander Kidneys Urea (c) Peacock Kidneys Urea (d) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid
Last Answer : (b) Salamander Kidneys Urea
Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the assessment of protein reserve? a. Conventional serum proteins such as albumin and globulin are early indicators of malnutrition b. The ... d. Measurement of urea excretion in urine can be used as a measurement of protein breakdown
Last Answer : Answer: d Since protein is the functional and structural chemical of the body, most nutritional assessment techniques are estimates of protein reserves. The actual nitrogen balance can ... patients convert from reactive to anergic, and reactivity can be restored by nutritional repletion
Description : In the human kidney: a. renal plasma flow is normally 660 ml/minute b. blood flow in the cortex is greater than that in the medulla c. resorption of ions and water ... the distal convoluted tubules d. anti-diuretic hormone increases water resorption mainly in the distal convoluted tubules
Last Answer : blood flow in the cortex is greater than that in the medulla
Description : Addis test is the measure of (A) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work (B) Secretory function of liver (C) Excretory function of liver (D) Activity of parenchymal cells of liver
Description : The most important channel of elimination of digoxin is: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Excretion in bile
Last Answer : A. Glomerular filtration
Description : Characteristics of Vitamin D and its metabolites include which one of the following? (a) Act to decrease serum levels of calcium (b) Activation of their Vitamin D receptors increases cellular CAMP ... Vitamin D increase renal excretion of calcium (e) Vitamin D deficiency results in Pager's disease
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : The following are true about erythromycin: a. it can be used to treat chlamydial infection effectively b. it decreases the renal excretion of cyclosporin c. it causes cholestasis d. all above
Last Answer : all above
Description : Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct? (a) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water. (b) Distal convoluted tubule is ... reabsorbed by the renal tubules. (d) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes.
Last Answer : (c) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
Description : Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them
Last Answer : D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them
Description : Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
Last Answer : D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
Description : Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate
Last Answer : B. Calcium
Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients
Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response
Description : Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Indomethacin D. All of the above
Description : Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution
Last Answer : B. Renal excretion
Description : Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol
Last Answer : D. Atenolol
Description : Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol
Description : All the following statements about renal tubular acidosis are correct except (A) Renal tubules may be unable to reabsorb bicarbonate (B) Renal tubules may be unable to secrete hydrogen ions (C) Plasma chloride is elevated (D) Anion gap is decreased
Description : Increased serum alanine during fasting is due to (A) Breakdown of muscle proteins (B) Decreased utilization of non essential amino acids (C) Leakage of aminoacids to plasma (D) Impaired renal function
Description : Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of the human nephron? (a) Podocytes : create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the ... blood capillaries (d) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein.
Last Answer : (a) Podocytes : create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule
Description : If a drug undergoes net tubular secretion, its renal clearance will be: A. More than the glomerular filtration rate B. Equal to the glomerular filtration rate C. Less than the glomerular filtration rate D. Equal to the rate of urine formation
Last Answer : A. More than the glomerular filtration rate