The following are true about erythromycin: a. it can be used to treat chlamydial infection effectively b. it decreases the renal excretion of cyclosporin c. it causes cholestasis d. all above

The following are true about erythromycin:
a. it can be used to treat chlamydial infection effectively
b. it decreases the renal excretion of cyclosporin
c. it causes cholestasis
d. all above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

all above
by

Related questions

PTH (A) Reduces the renal clearance or excretion of calcium (B) Increases renal phosphate clearance (C) Increases the renal clearance of calcium (D) Decreases the renal phosphate clearance

Description : PTH (A) Reduces the renal clearance or excretion of calcium (B) Increases renal phosphate clearance (C) Increases the renal clearance of calcium (D) Decreases the renal phosphate clearance

Last Answer : Answer : A

Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin

Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Tobramycin D. Erythromycin

Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Tobramycin D. Erythromycin

Last Answer : C. Tobramycin

The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Last Answer : Ans: B

The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin

Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: B

A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best choice for this patient? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin

Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin

Last Answer : Ans: B

The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is: A. Cloxacillin B. Vancomycin C. Erythromycin D. Amikacin

Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is: A. Cloxacillin B. Vancomycin C. Erythromycin D. Amikacin

Last Answer : B. Vancomycin

The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients: A. Clindamycin B. Clarithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Erythromycin

Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients: A. Clindamycin B. Clarithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Erythromycin

Last Answer : B. Clarithromycin

A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin

Description : A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin

Last Answer : D. Erythromycin

During compensation of respiratory alkalosis, all the following changes occur except (A) Decreased secretion of hydrogen ions by renal tubules (B) Increased excretion of sodium in urine (C) Increased excretion of bicarbonate in urine (D) Increased excretion of ammonia in urine

Description : During compensation of respiratory alkalosis, all the following changes occur except (A) Decreased secretion of hydrogen ions by renal tubules (B) Increased excretion of sodium in urine (C) Increased excretion of bicarbonate in urine (D) Increased excretion of ammonia in urine

Last Answer : Answer : D

Para-amino hippurate excretion test is an indicator of (A) Glomerular filtration (B) Tubular secretion (C) Tubular reabsorption (D) Renal plasma flow

Description : Para-amino hippurate excretion test is an indicator of (A) Glomerular filtration (B) Tubular secretion (C) Tubular reabsorption (D) Renal plasma flow

Last Answer : Answer : D

Phenolsulphonephthalein excretion test is an indicator of (A) Glomerular filtration (B) Tubular secretion (C) Tubular reabsorption (D) Renal blood low

Description : Phenolsulphonephthalein excretion test is an indicator of (A) Glomerular filtration (B) Tubular secretion (C) Tubular reabsorption (D) Renal blood low

Last Answer : Answer : D

Excretion of phenolsulphanpthalein (PSP) reflects (A) Glomerulonephritis (B) Maximaltabular excretory capacity (C) Filtration factor (D) Renal plasma flow

Description : Excretion of phenolsulphanpthalein (PSP) reflects (A) Glomerulonephritis (B) Maximaltabular excretory capacity (C) Filtration factor (D) Renal plasma flow

Last Answer : Answer : B

An important finding in glycinuria is (A) Excess excretion of oxalate in the urine (B) Deficiency of enzyme glycinase (C) Significantly increased serum glycine level (D) Defect in renal tubular reabsorption of glycine

Description : An important finding in glycinuria is (A) Excess excretion of oxalate in the urine (B) Deficiency of enzyme glycinase (C) Significantly increased serum glycine level (D) Defect in renal tubular reabsorption of glycine

Last Answer : Answer : D

Characteristics of Vitamin D and its metabolites include which one of the following? (a) Act to decrease serum levels of calcium (b) Activation of their Vitamin D receptors increases cellular CAMP (c) Calcitriol is the major derivative responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of phosphate (d) Metabolites of Vitamin D increase renal excretion of calcium (e) Vitamin D deficiency results in Pager’s disease

Description : Characteristics of Vitamin D and its metabolites include which one of the following? (a) Act to decrease serum levels of calcium (b) Activation of their Vitamin D receptors increases cellular CAMP ... Vitamin D increase renal excretion of calcium (e) Vitamin D deficiency results in Pager's disease

Last Answer : Ans: C

A 73 year old male presented with an acute attack of gout in his left knee. What is the most likely underlying metabolic cause? 1) decreased renal excretion of uric acid 2) endogenous overproduction of uric acid 3) excessive dietary purine intake 4) lactic acidosis 5) starvation

Description : A 73 year old male presented with an acute attack of gout in his left knee. What is the most likely underlying metabolic cause? 1) decreased renal excretion of uric acid 2) endogenous overproduction of uric acid 3) excessive dietary purine intake 4) lactic acidosis 5) starvation

Last Answer : Answers-1 The aetiology of gout can broadly be divided into cases where there is underexcretion of urate via the kidney (90%) or endogenous overproduction of uric acid (10%) although in practical ... diuretic use. Excessive dietary intake of purines is unlikely to be the main cause in this case.

Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct? (a) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.(b) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3 – . (c) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules. (d) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes.

Description : Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct? (a) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water. (b) Distal convoluted tubule is ... reabsorbed by the renal tubules. (d) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes.

Last Answer : (c) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.

Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for (A) Effective renal blood flow (B) Renal drug excretion rate (C) Active renal secretion (D) Glomerular filtration rate

Description : Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for (A) Effective renal blood flow (B) Renal drug excretion rate (C) Active renal secretion (D) Glomerular filtration rate

Last Answer : (D) Glomerular filtration rate

Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Description : Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Last Answer : D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Description : Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Last Answer : D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Description : Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Last Answer : B. Calcium

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Indomethacin D. All of the above

Description : Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Indomethacin D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Description : Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Last Answer : B. Renal excretion

Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol

Description : Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol

Last Answer : D. Atenolol

Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol

Description : Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol

Last Answer : D. Atenolol

Drug-induced cholestasis?

Description : Drug-induced cholestasis?

Last Answer : DefinitionDrug-induced cholestasis is a slowing of the flow of bile from the liver that results from medication use.Alternative NamesCholestasis ... contraceptivesProchlorperazineSulindacTerbinafineTolbutamideSymptomsFever or rash from the drugItchingNauseaPain in the upper r

Cholestasis?

Description : Cholestasis?

Last Answer : DefinitionCholestasis is any condition in which the flow of bile from the liver is blocked.Alternative NamesIntrahepatic cholestasis; Extrahepatic cholestasisCauses, ... IV)LymphomaPregnancyPrimary biliary cirrhosisPrimary sclerosing cholangitisSarcoidosisSerious infections that have spread throu

A complete absence of fecal urobilinogen is strongly suggestive of (A) Obstruction of bile duct (B) Hemolytic jaundice (C) Intrahepatic cholestasis (D) Malignant obstructive disease

Description : A complete absence of fecal urobilinogen is strongly suggestive of (A) Obstruction of bile duct (B) Hemolytic jaundice (C) Intrahepatic cholestasis (D) Malignant obstructive disease

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating insult has prompted oliguric acute tubular necrosis, renal function tends to be maintained early in the course of MOFS c. Although hepatic dysfunction is common with MOFS, the GI tract plays little role in this process d. Intercurrent nosocomial infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a “second hit” to the patient

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating ... infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a second hit to the patient

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Pulmonary dysfunction typically arises early in the development of systemic inflammation and may represent mild relatively localized acute lung injury or it may be a prelude ... is marked by progressive rise in serum bilirubin levels after a latent period of several days

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

A 59-year-old trauma patient has suffered multiple septic complications including severe pneumonia, intraabdominal abscess, and major wound infection. He has now developed signs of multisystem organ failure. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning necessary changes to be made in his nutritional management? a. Carbohydrate load should be reduced in the face of respiratory failure b. In patients with renal failure, protein intake should be diminished c. During hemodialysis protein intake should be limited to the same extent d. In patients with hepatic failure, carbohydrate load should be increased

Description : A 59-year-old trauma patient has suffered multiple septic complications including severe pneumonia, intraabdominal abscess, and major wound infection. He has now developed signs of multisystem organ ... the same extent d. In patients with hepatic failure, carbohydrate load should be increased

Last Answer : Answer: a, b The most severe complication of sepsis is multiple system organ dysfunction syndrome, which may result in death. The development of organ failure requires changes in the ... should be provided as fat emulsion. If encephalopathy develops, protein load should also be reduced0

The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It is contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

The following are true about the antidiuretic hormone: a. it is produced by the anterior pituitary gland b. it reduces the cardiac output c. it increases the renal absorption of sodium d. it decreases the release of ACTH

Description : The following are true about the antidiuretic hormone: a. it is produced by the anterior pituitary gland b. it reduces the cardiac output c. it increases the renal absorption of sodium d. it decreases the release of ACTH

Last Answer : it increases the renal absorption of sodium

If not pruritic, linear granulomas should be treated how A. Prednisone B. Prednisolone C. Scientific Neglect D. Cyclosporin

Description : If not pruritic, linear granulomas should be treated how A. Prednisone B. Prednisolone C. Scientific Neglect D. Cyclosporin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which one of the following statements is false ? Allergic asthma is characterized by: a) Response to cyclosporin therapy in severe disease. b) Is characterised by reversible airways obstruction. c) T2 cells are found in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid. d) Affects 5% of the population. e) Is diagnosed routinely by use of ELISA

Description : Which one of the following statements is false ? Allergic asthma is characterized by: a) Response to cyclosporin therapy in severe disease. b) Is characterised by reversible airways obstruction. c) T2 ... fluid. d) Affects 5% of the population. e) Is diagnosed routinely by use of ELISA

Last Answer : Ans: E

What is cyclosporin? How are fungi related to this substance?

Description : What is cyclosporin? How are fungi related to this substance?

Last Answer : Cyclosporin is a drug discovered in the 1970's that revolutionized organ transplantation in Medicine. It is a powerful immunosuppressor and so it lessens the immune activity of the ... . Cyclosporin is a protein produced by the fungus Tolypocladyum inflatum. Easily Understand Viral Microbiology

A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given (a) penicillin (b) streptokinase (c) cyclosporin-A (d) statins.

Description : A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given (a) penicillin (b) streptokinase (c) cyclosporin-A (d) statins.

Last Answer : (b) streptokinase

Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table? Microbe Product Application (a) Streptococcus Streptokinase Removal of clot from blood vessel (b) Clostridium butylicum Lipase Removal of oil stains (c) Trichoderma polysporum Cyclosporin A Immuno- suppressive drug (d) Monascus purpureus Statins Lowering of blood cholesterol

Description : Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table? Microbe Product Application (a) Streptococcus Streptokinase Removal of clot from blood vessel (b) Clostridium butylicum Lipase ... Cyclosporin A Immuno- suppressive drug (d) Monascus purpureus Statins Lowering of blood cholesterol

Last Answer : (b) Clostridium butylicum Lipase Removal of oil stains

Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given below. Column I Column II A. Citric acid (i) Trichoderma B. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium C. Statins (iii)Aspergillus D. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus (a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) (b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii) (c) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii) (d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

Description : Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given below. Column I Column II A. Citric acid (i) Trichoderma B. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium C. Statins (iii)Aspergillus D. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus (a) A- ... -(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii) (d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

Last Answer : (b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent? (a) Lipases (b) Cyclosporin A (c) Statin (d) Streptokinase

Description : Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent? (a) Lipases (b) Cyclosporin A (c) Statin (d) Streptokinase

Last Answer : (c) Statin

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (A) Clostridium butylicum (i) Cyclosporin-A (B) Trichoderma polysporum (ii) Butyric acid (C) Monascus purpureus (iii) Citric acid (D) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

Description : Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (A) Clostridium butylicum (i) Cyclosporin-A (B) Trichoderma polysporum (ii) Butyric acid (C) Monascus purpureus (iii) Citric acid (D) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

Last Answer : b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients

Erythromycin binds to 50 S ribosomal sub unit and (A) Inhibits binding of amino acyl tRNA (B) Inhibits Peptidyl transferase activity (C) Inhibits translocation (D) Causes premature chain termination

Description : Erythromycin binds to 50 S ribosomal sub unit and (A) Inhibits binding of amino acyl tRNA (B) Inhibits Peptidyl transferase activity (C) Inhibits translocation (D) Causes premature chain termination

Last Answer : Answer : C

Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity

Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity

Last Answer : Ans: A

Roxithromycin has the following advantage(s) over erythromycin: A. It is more effective in whooping cough B. It causes less gastric irritation C. It has longer plasma half-life D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantage(s) over erythromycin: A. It is more effective in whooping cough B. It causes less gastric irritation C. It has longer plasma half-life D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

The hormone that increases the blood calcium level and decreases its excretion by kidneys is :

Description : The hormone that increases the blood calcium level and decreases its excretion by kidneys is :

Last Answer : The hormone that increases the blood calcium level and decreases its excretion by kidneys is : A. insulin B. thyroxine C. calcitonin D. parathormone

Vasopressin (ADH) (A) Enhance facultative reabsorption of water (B) Decreases reabsorption of water (C) Increases excretion of calcium (D) Decreases excretion of calcium

Description : Vasopressin (ADH) (A) Enhance facultative reabsorption of water (B) Decreases reabsorption of water (C) Increases excretion of calcium (D) Decreases excretion of calcium

Last Answer : Answer : A

Amiloride has the following effect on urinary cation excretion: A. Decreases both K+ and H+ ion excretion B. Decreases K+ excretion but increases H+ ion excretion C. Increases K+ but decreases Na+ excretion D. Decreases both Na+ and K+ excretion

Description : Amiloride has the following effect on urinary cation excretion: A. Decreases both K+ and H+ ion excretion B. Decreases K+ excretion but increases H+ ion excretion C. Increases K+ but decreases Na+ excretion D. Decreases both Na+ and K+ excretion

Last Answer : A. Decreases both K+ and H+ ion excretion