Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:

Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:
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Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of: A. Progesterone ... C. Estrogen and inhibin D. Progesterone only
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Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of (a) progesterone only (b) progesterone and inhibin (c) estrogen and progesterone (d) estrogen and inhibin.

Description : Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of (a) progesterone only (b) progesterone and inhibin (c) estrogen and progesterone (d) estrogen and inhibin.

Last Answer : c) estrogen and progesterone

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or inflammatory stimuli b. The liver and gut appear to be a major source of TNF following hypoperfusion c. Circulating levels of TNF correlate well with severity of tissue injury in shock d. Recently completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or ... completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Tumor necrosis factor (TNF), a protein product of activated macrophages, is secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or ... patients utilizing infusion of monoclonal antibodies to the TNF molecule have shown no overall survival benefit

Which of the following compounds is most likely to lower circulating levels of leukotrienes? (a) Zileuton (b) Montelukast (c) Carprofen (d) Aspirin (e) Allopurinol

Description : Which of the following compounds is most likely to lower circulating levels of leukotrienes? (a) Zileuton (b) Montelukast (c) Carprofen (d) Aspirin (e) Allopurinol

Last Answer : Ans: A

To assess circulating oxygen levels the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines recommends the use of which of the following diagnostic tests? a) Hemoglobin Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that anemia be quantified using hemoglobin rather than hematocrit measurements, as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.

Description : To assess circulating oxygen levels the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines recommends the use of which of the following diagnostic tests? a) Hemoglobin ... gases Arterial blood gases assess the adequacy of oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base status.

Last Answer : a) Hemoglobin Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that ... rather than hematocrit measurements, as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.

Serum ferritin is a maker of Options: 1) Circulating Iron 2) Storage iron 3) Folate 4) Vitamin B12 Levels

Description : Serum ferritin is a maker of Options: 1) Circulating Iron 2) Storage iron 3) Folate 4) Vitamin B12 Levels

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 2) Storage iron

Circulating testosterone levels in men are elevated during treatment with: A. Danazol B. Finasteride C. Flutamide D. Ketoconazole

Description : Circulating testosterone levels in men are elevated during treatment with: A. Danazol B. Finasteride C. Flutamide D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : C. Flutamide

Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics

In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was (1) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis (2) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo (3) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening (4) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening

Description : In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was (1) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis (2) ... endometrial thickening (4) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening

Last Answer : (1) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the cardiovascular response to shock? a. Changes in cardiac contractile function shift the Frank Starling curve up and down b. Venoconstriction from skeletal muscle is a significant contributor to the restoration of blood volume with shock c. Arterial vasoconstriction affects all vascular beds equally d. The total circulating blood volume is equally split between the arterial and venous system

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the cardiovascular response to shock? a. Changes in cardiac contractile function shift the Frank Starling curve up and down b. ... d. The total circulating blood volume is equally split between the arterial and venous system

Last Answer : Answer: a Central in the general cardiovascular response to shock is the action of the heart itself. The principle determinants of cardiac function in the normal heart are the volume of blood ... Blood flow to the skin is sacrificed early, followed by that to the kidneys and splanchnic viscera

What do you think of females with high levels of testosterone participating in sports?

Description : What do you think of females with high levels of testosterone participating in sports?

Last Answer : Well on the one hand, they certainly have an advantage, but it’s tough to fault them for seeking to participate in something in which their hormone levels allow them to excel. There probably is no compromise that would be fair to everyone.

Assertion : Inhibin is secreted by the corpus luteum. Reason : They inhibit the FSH and GnRH production.

Description : Assertion : Inhibin is secreted by the corpus luteum. Reason : They inhibit the FSH and GnRH production.

Last Answer : Assertion : Inhibin is secreted by the corpus luteum. Reason : They inhibit the FSH and GnRH ... D. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

LH response to GnRH?

Description : LH response to GnRH?

Last Answer : DefinitionLH response to GnRH is a blood test to indirectly determine the pituitary gland's ability to appropriately respond to gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH), a hormone produced in the hypothalamus. ... swell with blood.Next, the health care provider gently inserts a needle into the vein.

In structure and function, HCG resembles (A) FSH (B) LH (C) GnRH (D) Progesterone

Description : In structure and function, HCG resembles (A) FSH (B) LH (C) GnRH (D) Progesterone

Last Answer : Answer : B

Secretion of luteinising hormone is increased by (A) GnRH (B) FSH (C) Testosterone (D) None of these

Description : Secretion of luteinising hormone is increased by (A) GnRH (B) FSH (C) Testosterone (D) None of these

Last Answer : Answer : A

GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on (a) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH (b) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH (c) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin (d) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

Description : GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on (a) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH (b) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin ... of LH and relaxin (d) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

Last Answer : (a) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH

Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: a) ACTH. b) Growth hormone. c) Leutinising Hormone (LH). d) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). e) Opiate peptides.

Description : Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: a) ACTH. b) Growth hormone. c) Leutinising Hormone (LH). d) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). e) Opiate peptides.

Last Answer : c) Leutinising Hormone (LH).

Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate when combined with a GnRH agonist: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Danazol C. Finasteride D. Flutamid

Description : Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate when combined with a GnRH agonist: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Danazol C. Finasteride D. Flutamid

Last Answer : D. Flutamide

Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : 16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

16.15 The hypothalamic gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) is: A. A single peptide B. A mixture of two distinct peptides FSH-RH and LH-RH C. A mixture of several peptides D. Dopamine

Description : 16.15 The hypothalamic gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) is: A. A single peptide B. A mixture of two distinct peptides FSH-RH and LH-RH C. A mixture of several peptides D. Dopamine

Last Answer : A. A single peptide

GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on: (1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH. (2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH. (3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin. (4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

Description : GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on: (1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH. (2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and ... of LH and relaxin. (4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

Last Answer : 1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.

While giving CPR which of the following is considered: a. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute. b. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations per minute. c. You have to check compression point by thumbing before starting compression. d. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Description : While giving CPR which of the following is considered: a. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute. b. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations ... starting compression. d. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Last Answer : c. You have to check compression point by thumbing before starting compression.

While giving CPR which of the following is correct: A. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute B. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations per minute C. You have to check compression point by thumping before starting compression D. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Description : While giving CPR which of the following is correct: A. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute B. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 ... thumping before starting compression D. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Last Answer : C. You have to check compression point by thumping before starting compression

If the length of the fiber point defect changes with pulse duration, is the OTDR signal deviation a point defect or a region of high fiber attenuation?

Description : If the length of the fiber point defect changes with pulse duration, is the OTDR signal deviation a point defect or a region of high fiber attenuation?

Last Answer : A point defect.

Which is NOT a correct consequence of surgical removal of portions of these glands? A) adrenal cortex--bronzing of skin, no glucose at stress, dehydration and death B) thymus--decrease in sex drive and changes in secondary sexual characteristics C) parathyroid glands--drop in blood calcium level and tetany (muscles shake) D) ovaries--alteration in menstrual cycle and change in secondary sex characteristics E) adult thyroid--low pulse rate and body temperature and lethargy

Description : Which is NOT a correct consequence of surgical removal of portions of these glands? A) adrenal cortex--bronzing of skin, no glucose at stress, dehydration and death B) thymus--decrease ... change in secondary sex characteristics E) adult thyroid--low pulse rate and body temperature and lethargy

Last Answer : B) thymus--decrease in sex drive and changes in secondary sexual characteristics

Which of the following diseases is associated with decreased levels of dopamine due to destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain? a) Parkinson’s disease In some patients, Parkinson’s disease can be controlled; however, it cannot be cured.

Description : Which of the following diseases is associated with decreased levels of dopamine due to destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain? a) ... of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Parkinson’s disease In some patients, Parkinson’s disease can be controlled; however, it cannot be cured.

The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

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Last Answer : a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

____ is a selective process that can be controlled to produce various levels of hardening. a. Winterization c. Hydrogenization b. Bleaching d. Degumming

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Last Answer : The number of vibrations per second in a signal is called Pulse rate .

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Description : What does Sending out a pulse of high frequency radio waves?

Last Answer : Need answer

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Last Answer : D. A frequency modulated continuous wave

Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging? A. Frequency shift B. Frequency modulation C. Pulse radar D. Amplitude modulation

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Last Answer : A. frequency-shift keying

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Description : In an astable multivibrator, which components determine the pulse repetition frequency?

Last Answer : RC coupling networks.

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Description : What term is used to describe the product of pulse width and pulse-repetition frequency?

Last Answer : Duty cycle.

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Description : What is pulse-frequency modulation?

Last Answer : A method of pulse modulation in which a modulating wave is used to frequency modulate a pulse-generating circuit

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An eight stage ripple counter uses a flip-flop with propagation delay of 75 nanoseconds. The pulse width of the strobe is 50ns. The frequency of the input signal which can be used for proper operation of the counter is approximately (A) 1 MHz. (B) 500 MHz. (C) 2 MHz. (D) 4 MHz.

Description : An eight stage ripple counter uses a flip-flop with propagation delay of 75 nanoseconds. The pulse width of the strobe is 50ns. The frequency of the input signal which can be used for proper operation of the counter is approximately (A) 1 MHz. (B) 500 MHz. (C) 2 MHz. (D) 4 MHz.

Last Answer : Maximum time taken for all flip-flops to stabilize is 75ns x 8 + 50 = 650ns. Frequency of operation must be less than 1/650ns = 1.5 MHz.

A pulse radar has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 3 KHz. If the radar is emitting at 10 GHz, what is the

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Last Answer : A pulse compression radar transmits an encoded pulse having a frequency chirp from 990 MHz to 1010 MHz centred around 1 GHz. The range resolution capability of this radar is 7.5 m

The clock frequency of an 8085 microprocessor based system is 3 MHz. What should be the minimum pulse

Description : The clock frequency of an 8085 microprocessor based system is 3 MHz. What should be the minimum pulse width of the INTR signal so that it is recognized successfully? A) 5.6 µs B) 5.7 µs C) 5.8 µs D) 5.9 µs

Last Answer : The clock frequency of an 8085 microprocessor based system is 3 MHz. What should be the minimum pulse width of the INTR signal so that it is recognized successfully? A) 5.6 µs B) 5.7 µs C) 5.8 µs D) 5.9 µs

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

The voltage output of an AC generator is accurately controlled by _____________. A. changing the sensitivity of the prime mover to large changes in voltage B. varying the reluctance of the air gap C. varying the DC exciter voltage D. shorting out part of the armature windings

Description : The voltage output of an AC generator is accurately controlled by _____________. A. changing the sensitivity of the prime mover to large changes in voltage B. varying the reluctance of the air gap C. varying the DC exciter voltage D. shorting out part of the armature windings

Last Answer : Answer: C

Configuration management is best described as: a. control in the implementation of changes to project schedules. b. an organization to review proposed changes to the project deliverables. c. quality control of project deliverables and documentation. d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

Description : Configuration management is best described as: a. control in the implementation of changes to project schedules. b. an organization to review proposed changes to the project deliverables ... and documentation. d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

Last Answer : d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

Configuration management is best described as: a. control in the implementation of changes to project schedules. b. an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables. c. quality control of project deliverables and documentation. d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

Description : Configuration management is best described as:  a. control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.  b. an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables ... and documentation.  d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

Last Answer : d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

Cascade control is (A) The continuous adjustment of the set point index of an automatic control loop by a primary (master) controller (B) Used when changes in process conditions cause serious upsets in the controlled variable (C) Useful to control flow from temperature (D) All 'a', 'b' & 'c'

Description : Cascade control is (A) The continuous adjustment of the set point index of an automatic control loop by a primary (master) controller (B) Used when changes in process conditions cause serious upsets in the controlled variable (C) Useful to control flow from temperature (D) All 'a', 'b' & 'c'

Last Answer : (D) All 'a', 'b' & 'c'

How should changes controlled?

Description : How should changes controlled?

Last Answer : Through the integrated change control process. Requested changes will have to be reviewed by a change control board. Only the approved changes shall be included in the document changes guiding project execution.