16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause:
A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins
B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of
gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks
C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of
gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks
D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of
gonadotropin release
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of
gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks
by

Related questions

Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

16.15 The hypothalamic gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) is: A. A single peptide B. A mixture of two distinct peptides FSH-RH and LH-RH C. A mixture of several peptides D. Dopamine

Description : 16.15 The hypothalamic gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) is: A. A single peptide B. A mixture of two distinct peptides FSH-RH and LH-RH C. A mixture of several peptides D. Dopamine

Last Answer : A. A single peptide

Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmented by the following except: A. Ketone bodies B. Glucagon C. Vagal stimulation D. Alfa adrenergic agonists

Description : Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmented by the following except: A. Ketone bodies B. Glucagon C. Vagal stimulation D. Alfa adrenergic agonists

Last Answer : D. Alfa adrenergic agonist

Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: a) ACTH. b) Growth hormone. c) Leutinising Hormone (LH). d) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). e) Opiate peptides.

Description : Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: a) ACTH. b) Growth hormone. c) Leutinising Hormone (LH). d) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). e) Opiate peptides.

Last Answer : c) Leutinising Hormone (LH).

The metabolic actions of adrenaline include the following except: A. Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver C. Lipolysis in adipose tissue D. Release of potassium from liver followed by its uptake

Description : The metabolic actions of adrenaline include the following except: A. Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver C. Lipolysis in adipose tissue D. Release of potassium from liver followed by its uptake

Last Answer : B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver

The metabolic actions of adrenaline include the following except: A. Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver C. Lipolysis in adipose tissue D. Release of potassium from liver followed by its uptake

Description : The metabolic actions of adrenaline include the following except: A. Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver C. Lipolysis in adipose tissue D. Release of potassium from liver followed by its uptake

Last Answer : B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver

The following hypothalamic regulatory hormone is not a peptide: A. Growth hormone release inhibitory hormone B. Prolactin release inhibitory hormone C. Gonadotropin releasing hormone D. Corticotropin releasing hormone (

Description : The following hypothalamic regulatory hormone is not a peptide: A. Growth hormone release inhibitory hormone B. Prolactin release inhibitory hormone C. Gonadotropin releasing hormone D. Corticotropin releasing hormone (

Last Answer : B. Prolactin release inhibitory hormone

The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule

Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Description : Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Last Answer : B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours

Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Description : Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Last Answer : D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Description : Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Last Answer : D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

16.5 Octreotide is a long acting synthetic analogue of: A. Prolactin B. Growth hormone C. Somatostatin D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone

Description : 16.5 Octreotide is a long acting synthetic analogue of: A. Prolactin B. Growth hormone C. Somatostatin D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors

The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the benzodiazepine receptor C. Increase the frequency of chloride channel opening without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Description : The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the ... without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Last Answer : D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Methylxanthines exert the following action(s) at cellular/molecular level: A. Intracellular release of Ca2+ B. Antagonism of adenosine C. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase D. All of the above

Description : Methylxanthines exert the following action(s) at cellular/molecular level: A. Intracellular release of Ca2+ B. Antagonism of adenosine C. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month

Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because: A. They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action B. They are less likely to affect gastric emptying C. They are less likely to alter bowel movement D. All of the above

Description : Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because: A. They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action B. They are less likely to affect gastric emptying C. They are less likely to alter bowel movement D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Last Answer : B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action

Insulin secretion: a. is inhibited by atropine b. is increased by vagal stimulation c. is inhibited by amino acids d. is stimulated by beta agonists

Description : Insulin secretion: a. is inhibited by atropine b. is increased by vagal stimulation c. is inhibited by amino acids d. is stimulated by beta agonists

Last Answer : is increased by vagal stimulation

Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate when combined with a GnRH agonist: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Danazol C. Finasteride D. Flutamid

Description : Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate when combined with a GnRH agonist: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Danazol C. Finasteride D. Flutamid

Last Answer : D. Flutamide

The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Description : The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Last Answer : D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprosto

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6 months B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2 months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone for 6 months C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months

Which pressor agent acts directly as well as indirectly and produces both vasoconstriction and cardiac stimulation: A. Phenylephrine B. Methoxamine C. Noradrenaline D. Mephentermine

Description : Which pressor agent acts directly as well as indirectly and produces both vasoconstriction and cardiac stimulation: A. Phenylephrine B. Methoxamine C. Noradrenaline D. Mephentermine

Last Answer : D. Mephentermine

Which pressor agent acts directly as well as indirectly and produces both vasoconstriction and cardiac stimulation: A. Phenylephrine B. Methoxamine C. Noradrenaline D. Mephentermine

Description : Which pressor agent acts directly as well as indirectly and produces both vasoconstriction and cardiac stimulation: A. Phenylephrine B. Methoxamine C. Noradrenaline D. Mephentermine

Last Answer : D. Mephentermine

Which pressor agent acts directly as well as indirectly and produces both vasoconstriction and cardiac stimulation: A. Phenylephrine B. Methoxamine C. Noradrenaline D. Mephentermine

Description : Which pressor agent acts directly as well as indirectly and produces both vasoconstriction and cardiac stimulation: A. Phenylephrine B. Methoxamine C. Noradrenaline D. Mephentermine

Last Answer : D. Mephentermine

The following effect(s) of tamoxifen citrate indicate(s) that it possesses tissue specific estrogenic action as well: A. Inhibition of breast cancer cells B. Endometrial proliferation C. Hot flushes in premenopausal women D. All of the above

Description : The following effect(s) of tamoxifen citrate indicate(s) that it possesses tissue specific estrogenic action as well: A. Inhibition of breast cancer cells B. Endometrial proliferation C. Hot flushes in premenopausal women D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Endometrial proliferation

The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Description : The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Last Answer : C. It is antigenic

Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Description : Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Last Answer : D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Which of the following is not the basis for subclassifying β adrenergic receptors into β1 and β2 : A. Selectivity of agonists B. Selectivity of antagonists C. Transducer pathway of response effectuation D. Organ selective location

Description : Which of the following is not the basis for subclassifying β adrenergic receptors into β1 and β2 : A. Selectivity of agonists B. Selectivity of antagonists C. Transducer pathway of response effectuation D. Organ selective location

Last Answer : C. Transducer pathway of response effectuation

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Description : The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Last Answer : B. It is a rectangular hyperbola

Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of: A. Continuous use of agonists B. Continuous use of antagonists C. Chronic use of CNS depressants D. Denervation

Description : Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of: A. Continuous use of agonists B. Continuous use of antagonists C. Chronic use of CNS depressants D. Denervation

Last Answer : A. Continuous use of agonists

Receptors perform the following function/functions: A. Ligand recognition B. Signal transduction C. Both ligand recognition and signal transduction D. Disposal of agonists and antagonists

Description : Receptors perform the following function/functions: A. Ligand recognition B. Signal transduction C. Both ligand recognition and signal transduction D. Disposal of agonists and antagonists

Last Answer : C. Both ligand recognition and signal transduction

Agonists affect the receptor molecule in the following manner: A. Alter its amino acid sequence B. Denature the receptor protein C. Alter its folding or alignment of subunits D. Induce covalent bond formation

Description : Agonists affect the receptor molecule in the following manner: A. Alter its amino acid sequence B. Denature the receptor protein C. Alter its folding or alignment of subunits D. Induce covalent bond formation

Last Answer : C. Alter its folding or alignment of subunits

Leukotriene antagonists are used in bronchial asthma: A. For terminating acute attacks B. As monotherapy in place of β2 agonists C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids D. As nebulized powder in refractory cases

Description : Leukotriene antagonists are used in bronchial asthma: A. For terminating acute attacks B. As monotherapy in place of β2 agonists C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids D. As nebulized powder in refractory cases

Last Answer : C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids

The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by: A. Adrenergic α1 agonists B. Adrenergic α1 antagonists C. Adrenergic α2 agonists D. Adrenergic α2 antagonists

Description : The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by: A. Adrenergic α1 agonists B. Adrenergic α1 antagonists C. Adrenergic α2 agonists D. Adrenergic α2 antagonists

Last Answer : B. Adrenergic α1 antagonists

Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Description : Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Last Answer : D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Which of the following is not the basis for subclassifying β adrenergic receptors into β 1 and β 2: A. Selectivity of agonists B. Selectivity of antagonists C. Transducer pathway of response effectuation D. Organ selective location

Description : Which of the following is not the basis for subclassifying β adrenergic receptors into β 1 and β 2: A. Selectivity of agonists B. Selectivity of antagonists C. Transducer pathway of response effectuation D. Organ selective location

Last Answer : C. Transducer pathway of response effectuation

Chlorpromazine therapy increases the secretion of the following hormone: A. Prolactin B. Gonadotropin C. Corticotropin D. Antidiuretic hormone

Description : Chlorpromazine therapy increases the secretion of the following hormone: A. Prolactin B. Gonadotropin C. Corticotropin D. Antidiuretic hormone

Last Answer : A. Prolactin

The currently used injectable hormonal contraceptive contains: A. Long acting progestin B. Long acting estrogen C. Both long acting estrogen and progestin D. Chorionic gonadotropin

Description : The currently used injectable hormonal contraceptive contains: A. Long acting progestin B. Long acting estrogen C. Both long acting estrogen and progestin D. Chorionic gonadotropin

Last Answer : A. Long acting progestin

Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible for attracting and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Description : Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible ... and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Last Answer : A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction

Secretin causes all of the following except (A) Secretion of pancreatic juice (B) Secretion of bile (C) Inhibition of gastric secretion (D) Stimulation of intestinal motility

Description : Secretin causes all of the following except (A) Secretion of pancreatic juice (B) Secretion of bile (C) Inhibition of gastric secretion (D) Stimulation of intestinal motility

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which of the following is/are true of the actions of transforming growth factor beta (TGF-b) during wound repair? A. Increased matrix and proteoglycan synthesis. B. Inhibition of proteases. C. Stimulation of plasminogen inhibitor. D. Chemotaxis for fibroblasts and macrophages. E. Autoinduction of TGF-b.

Description : Which of the following is/are true of the actions of transforming growth factor beta (TGF-b) during wound repair? A. Increased matrix and proteoglycan synthesis. B. Inhibition of proteases. ... of plasminogen inhibitor. D. Chemotaxis for fibroblasts and macrophages. E. Autoinduction of TGF-b.

Last Answer : Answer: ABDE DISCUSSION: Through autocrine and paracrine mechanisms TGF-b stimulates the deposition of collagen and other matrix components by fibroblasts, inhibits proteases, blocks plasminogen inhibitor, ... effects. The sustained production of TGF-b at the wound site leads to tissue fibrosis

.The fetal ejection reflex in humans triggers the release of (a) oxytocin from fetal pituitary (b) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta (c) human placental lactogen (hPL) from placenta (d) oxytocin from maternal pituitary.

Description : .The fetal ejection reflex in humans triggers the release of (a) oxytocin from fetal pituitary (b) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta (c) human placental lactogen (hPL) from placenta (d) oxytocin from maternal pituitary.

Last Answer : (d) oxytocin from maternal pituitary.

16.11 Bromocriptine causes the following: A. Prolactin release B. Vomiting C. Uterine contraction D. Impotence

Description : 16.11 Bromocriptine causes the following: A. Prolactin release B. Vomiting C. Uterine contraction D. Impotence

Last Answer : B. Vomiting

16.8 Drugs that suppress growth hormone release in acromegaly include the following except: A. Bromocriptine B. Somatostatin C. Octreotide D. Nafarelin

Description : 16.8 Drugs that suppress growth hormone release in acromegaly include the following except: A. Bromocriptine B. Somatostatin C. Octreotide D. Nafarelin

Last Answer : D. Nafarelin