Choose the relatively vasicoselective anticholinergic drug used for urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to detrusor instability: A. Pirenzepine B. Oxybutynin C. Oxyphenonium D. Glycopyrolate

Choose the relatively vasicoselective anticholinergic drug used for urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to detrusor instability: A. Pirenzepine B. Oxybutynin C. Oxyphenonium D. Glycopyrolate
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B. Oxybutynin
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Choose the relatively vasicoselective anticholinergic drug used for urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to detrusor instability: A. Pirenzepine B. Oxybutynin C. Oxyphenonium D. Glycopyrolate

Description : Choose the relatively vasicoselective anticholinergic drug used for urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to detrusor instability: A. Pirenzepine B. Oxybutynin C. Oxyphenonium D. Glycopyrolate

Last Answer : B. Oxybutynin

Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Description : Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are ... be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.

Last Answer : a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

A 40 years old multiparous woman complains of involuntary loss of urine associated with coughing, laughing, lifting or standing. The history is most suggestive of: a) Fistula. b) Stress incontinence. c) Urge incontinence. d) Urethral diverticulum. e) Urinary tract infection.

Description : A 40 years old multiparous woman complains of involuntary loss of urine associated with coughing, laughing, lifting or standing. The history is most suggestive of: a) Fistula. b) Stress incontinence. c) Urge incontinence. d) Urethral diverticulum. e) Urinary tract infection.

Last Answer : b) Stress incontinence.

Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors: A. Famotidine B. Loxatidine C. Omeprazole D. Pirenzepine

Description : Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors: A. Famotidine B. Loxatidine C. Omeprazole D. Pirenzepine

Last Answer : C. Omeprazole

Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence

Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence

ntacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antipeptic ulcer drug: A. Cimetidine B. Colloidal bismuth C. Sucralfate D. Pirenzepine

Description : ntacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antipeptic ulcer drug: A. Cimetidine B. Colloidal bismuth C. Sucralfate D. Pirenzepine

Last Answer : C. Sucralfate

The most efficacious drug for inhibiting round the clock gastric acid output is: A. Omeprazole B. Cimetidine C. Pirenzepine D. Misoprostol

Description : The most efficacious drug for inhibiting round the clock gastric acid output is: A. Omeprazole B. Cimetidine C. Pirenzepine D. Misoprostol

Last Answer : A. Omeprazole

Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI C. Fluid restriction is recommended so that the antimicrobial drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI

The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline

Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline

Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action

Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It is a synthetic atropine substitute used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms

Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback. b) Kegel exercises Kegel exercises are pelvic floor exercises that strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle. c) Habit training Habit training is used to try to keep the patient dry by strictly adhering to a toileting schedule and may be successful with stress, urge, or functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

Description : Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge ... functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

Last Answer : a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback.

Has urinary incontinence caused you to restrict your activities and limit your social interactions to avoid embarrassment?

Description : Has urinary incontinence caused you to restrict your activities and limit your social interactions to avoid embarrassment?

Last Answer : answer:Man, I so sympathize. Ever since my third child was born (almost 16 years ago!), I've had a prolapsed bladder. If I have a prolonged cough or a bad coughing fit, I'm likely to pee. Sometimes laughing ... I know it's likely to be a problem (when I'm sick with a cough), I wear pads. Blech.

Urinary incontinence?

Description : Urinary incontinence?

Last Answer : DefinitionUrinary (or bladder) incontinence is when you are not able to keep urine from leaking from your urethra, the tube that carries urine out of your body from your bladder. It can ... when the bladder cannot empty completely, which leads to dribbling.Mixed incontinence -- involves more t

Urinary incontinence - tension-free vaginal tape?

Description : Urinary incontinence - tension-free vaginal tape?

Last Answer : DefinitionPlacement of tension-free vaginal tape is a procedure to help control stress incontinence, urine leakage that can happen when you laugh, cough, sneeze, lift things, or exercise. The procedure helps close ... In spinal anesthesia, you will be awake but numb from the waist down, and you wil

Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased fluid intake, a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Description : Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other ... level in the menopausal woman is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older woman.

Last Answer : a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased ... a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial concentration in the urinary tract but not in other tissues: A. Pefloxacin B. Amikacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Cephalexin

Description : Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial concentration in the urinary tract but not in other tissues: A. Pefloxacin B. Amikacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Cephalexin

Last Answer : C. Nitrofurantoin

Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas: A. Nalidixic acid B. Azithromycin C. Bacampicillin D. Pefloxacin

Description : Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas: A. Nalidixic acid B. Azithromycin C. Bacampicillin D. Pefloxacin

Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid

Select the drug that primarily reduces the static component of urinary obstruction in benign hypertrophy of prostate and takes more than 3 months to exert its beneficial effect: A. Tamsulosin B. Terazosin C. Finasteride D. Amphetamine

Description : Select the drug that primarily reduces the static component of urinary obstruction in benign hypertrophy of prostate and takes more than 3 months to exert its beneficial effect: A. Tamsulosin B. Terazosin C. Finasteride D. Amphetamine

Last Answer : C. Finasteride

Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy without affecting prostate size: A. Amphetamine B. Prazosin C. Finasteride D. Goserelin

Description : Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy without affecting prostate size: A. Amphetamine B. Prazosin C. Finasteride D. Goserelin

Last Answer : B. Prazosin

Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy without affecting prostate size: A. Amphetamine B. Prazosin C. Finasteride D. Goserelin

Description : Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy without affecting prostate size: A. Amphetamine B. Prazosin C. Finasteride D. Goserelin

Last Answer : B. Prazosin

Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria C. It is highly effective in acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills ... acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Last Answer : B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria

Which of the following is an efficacious antiinflammatory drug but a relatively weak inhibitor of cyclooxygenase: A. Nimesulide B. Paracetamol C. Ketoprofen D. Indomethacin

Description : Which of the following is an efficacious antiinflammatory drug but a relatively weak inhibitor of cyclooxygenase: A. Nimesulide B. Paracetamol C. Ketoprofen D. Indomethacin

Last Answer : A. Nimesulide

Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action

Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy

Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy

Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Description : The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Last Answer : C. COMT inhibitor

Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery: A. Glycopyrrolate B. Pipenzolate methyl bromide C. Isopropamide D. Dicyclomine

Description : Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery: A. Glycopyrrolate B. Pipenzolate methyl bromide C. Isopropamide D. Dicyclomine

Last Answer : A. Glycopyrrolate

The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action

Description : The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action

Last Answer : D. Good antipruritic action

The following is not a feature of second generation antihistaminics: A. Nonimpairment of psychomotor performance B. High antimotion sickness activity C. Absence of anticholinergic/anti5 -HTa ctions D. Additional mechanisms of antiallergic action

Description : The following is not a feature of second generation antihistaminics: A. Nonimpairment of psychomotor performance B. High antimotion sickness activity C. Absence of anticholinergic/anti5 -HTa ctions D. Additional mechanisms of antiallergic action

Last Answer : B. High antimotion sickness activity

Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery: A. Glycopyrrolate B. Pipenzolate methyl bromide C. Isopropamide D. Dicyclomine

Description : Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery: A. Glycopyrrolate B. Pipenzolate methyl bromide C. Isopropamide D. Dicyclomine

Last Answer : A. Glycopyrrolate

Choose the correct statement about anabolic steroids: A. They are testosterone congeners having anabolic but no androgenic activity B. They are androgens with relatively selective anabolic activity C. They are suitable for long-term therapy in children D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about anabolic steroids: A. They are testosterone congeners having anabolic but no androgenic activity B. They are androgens with relatively selective anabolic activity C. They are suitable for long-term therapy in children D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : B. They are androgens with relatively selective anabolic activity

Glaucoma is treated by which of the following: w) androgenic drug x) androgenic blocking drug y) cholinergic drug z) anticholinergic drug

Description : Glaucoma is treated by which of the following: w) androgenic drug x) androgenic blocking drug y) cholinergic drug z) anticholinergic drug

Last Answer : ANSWER: Y -- CHOLINERGIC DRUG

The effect of sympathetic nervous system include: a. contraction of the bladder detrusor muscle b pupillary dilatationc. reduced gastrointestinal motility d. constricts bronchiole smooth muscle

Description : The effect of sympathetic nervous system include: a. contraction of the bladder detrusor muscle b pupillary dilatation c. reduced gastrointestinal motility d. constricts bronchiole smooth muscle

Last Answer : pupillary dilatation

The effect of sympathetic nervous system include: a. contraction of the bladder detrusor muscle b pupillary dilatation c. reduced gastrointestinal motility d. constricts bronchiole smooth muscle

Description : The effect of sympathetic nervous system include: a. contraction of the bladder detrusor muscle b pupillary dilatation c. reduced gastrointestinal motility d. constricts bronchiole smooth muscle

Last Answer : reduced gastrointestinal motility

Empiric therapy with chloramphenicol is valid in the following conditions except: A. Urinary tract infection B. Pelvic abscess C. Endophthalmitis D. Meningitis in a 4-year-old child

Description : Empiric therapy with chloramphenicol is valid in the following conditions except: A. Urinary tract infection B. Pelvic abscess C. Endophthalmitis D. Meningitis in a 4-year-old child

Last Answer : A. Urinary tract infection

The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation C. They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Description : The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation ... in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Last Answer : A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble

Amiloride has the following effect on urinary cation excretion: A. Decreases both K+ and H+ ion excretion B. Decreases K+ excretion but increases H+ ion excretion C. Increases K+ but decreases Na+ excretion D. Decreases both Na+ and K+ excretion

Description : Amiloride has the following effect on urinary cation excretion: A. Decreases both K+ and H+ ion excretion B. Decreases K+ excretion but increases H+ ion excretion C. Increases K+ but decreases Na+ excretion D. Decreases both Na+ and K+ excretion

Last Answer : A. Decreases both K+ and H+ ion excretion

A patient of congestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and digoxin. He developed urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials should be avoided: A. Ampicillin B. Gentamicin C. Norfloxacin D. Cotrimoxazole

Description : A patient of congestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and digoxin. He developed urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials should be avoided: A. Ampicillin B. Gentamicin C. Norfloxacin D. Cotrimoxazole

Last Answer : B. Gentamicin

In patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy, finasteride exerts the following action/actions: A. Reduces size of the prostate gland B. Increases peak urinary flow rate C. Relaxes vesical sphincter D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : In patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy, finasteride exerts the following action/actions: A. Reduces size of the prostate gland B. Increases peak urinary flow rate C. Relaxes vesical sphincter D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The organ most sensitive to actions of atropine is: A. Gastric glands B. Salivary glands C. Urinary bladder muscle D. Heart

Description : The organ most sensitive to actions of atropine is: A. Gastric glands B. Salivary glands C. Urinary bladder muscle D. Heart

Last Answer : B. Salivary glands

Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It is a synthetic atropine substitute used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms

This is referred to a product of simultaneous frequency and amplitude modulation or a carrier frequency variation which produces unwanted distortion. A. Absorption modulation B. Simultaneous modulation C. Dynamic instability D. Series modulation

Description : This is referred to a product of simultaneous frequency and amplitude modulation or a carrier frequency variation which produces unwanted distortion. A. Absorption modulation B. Simultaneous modulation C. Dynamic instability D. Series modulation

Last Answer : C. Dynamic instability

The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack: A. Isosorbide dinitrate B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate C. Diltiazem D. Dipyridamole

Description : The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack: A. Isosorbide dinitrate B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate C. Diltiazem D. Dipyridamole

Last Answer : A. Isosorbide dinitrate