The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation

The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation
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The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor: A. Vasoconstriction B. Bradycardia C. EDRF release D. Platelet aggregation

Description : The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor: A. Vasoconstriction B. Bradycardia C. EDRF release D. Platelet aggregation

Last Answer : B. Bradycardia

The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is (a) Histamine H1 receptor (b) Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor (c) Dopamine D2 receptor (d) Opioid µ receptor

Description : The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is (a) Histamine H1 receptor (b) Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor (c) Dopamine D2 receptor (d) Opioid µ receptor

Last Answer : Ans: B

The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Description : The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Last Answer : . Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

The symptoms of allergen-mediated asthma result from which of the following? (a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells (b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways (c) Inceased vascular permeability of bronchial tissue (d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cell (e) Decreased prostaglandin production

Description : The symptoms of allergen-mediated asthma result from which of the following? (a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells (b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways (c) ... bronchial tissue (d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cell (e) Decreased prostaglandin production

Last Answer : Ans: A

The Symptoms of allergen-mediated asthma result from which of the following? (a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells (b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways (c) Increased vascular permeability of bronchial tissue (d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cells (e) Decreased prostaglandin production

Description : The Symptoms of allergen-mediated asthma result from which of the following? (a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells (b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways (c) ... bronchial tissue (d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cells (e) Decreased prostaglandin production

Last Answer : Ans: A

Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules for release after receptor mediated signaling b. Eicosanoids include prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins c. Eicosanoids generally have a plasma half-life measured in hours d. Physiologic responses to eicosanoids include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Description : Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules ... include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The eicosanoids are derived from arachidonic acid (eicosatetraenoic acid) and consist of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins. The eicosanoids are not ... nervous system d. Mononuclear phagocytes release a variety of proinflammatory cytokines and growth factors

The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation

The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation

Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Description : Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

Methylxanthines exert the following action (s) at cellular/molecular level (a) Intracellular release of Ca2+ (b) Antagonism of adenosine (c) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase (d) All of the above

Description : Methylxanthines exert the following action (s) at cellular/molecular level (a) Intracellular release of Ca2+ (b) Antagonism of adenosine (c) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

What is symport ? (a) Counter transport (b) Contransport (c) Carrier mediated diffusion (d) Solvent drug

Description : What is symport ? (a) Counter transport (b) Contransport (c) Carrier mediated diffusion (d) Solvent drug

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following terms best describes the antagonism of leukotriene’s bronchoconstrictor effect (mediated at leukotriene receptors) by terbutaline (acting a adrenoceptors) in a patient with asthma? (a) Pharmacologic antagonist (b) Partial agonist (c) Physiologic antagonist (d) Chemical antagonist (e) Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : Which of the following terms best describes the antagonism of leukotriene's bronchoconstrictor effect (mediated at leukotriene receptors) by terbutaline (acting a adrenoceptors) in a patient with ... ) Partial agonist (c) Physiologic antagonist (d) Chemical antagonist (e) Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Description : The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Last Answer : A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agoinist ? (a) 4-methyl histamine (b) Impromidine (c) 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine (d) Mepyramine

Description : Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agoinist ? (a) 4-methyl histamine (b) Impromidine (c) 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine (d) Mepyramine

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following biogenic amine is not actively taken up into its storage site by an active amine pump: A. Histamine B. 5-Hydroxy tryptamine C. Dopamine D. Noradrenaline

Description : The following biogenic amine is not actively taken up into its storage site by an active amine pump: A. Histamine B. 5-Hydroxy tryptamine C. Dopamine D. Noradrenaline

Last Answer : A. Histamine

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% of systemic vascular resistance b. Endogenous epinephrine is the primary contributor to systemic vascular resistance c. Increased pancreatic secretion of glucagon contributes to glucose intolerance associated with injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% ... injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The neuroendocrine response to shock attempts to achieve restoration of effective blood volume, mobilization of metabolic substrates, and maintenance of central ... . Angiotensin II is an extremely effective vasoconstrictor that further augments sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Choose the drug which alters surface receptors on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extracorporeal circulation: A. Dipyridamole B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Heparin

Description : Choose the drug which alters surface receptors on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extracorporeal circulation: A. Dipyridamole B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Heparin

Last Answer : B. Ticlopidine

Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above

Description : Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

The vasopressin action(s) mediated by V2 receptors include(s): A. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells B. Increased urea permeability of collecting duct cells C. Vasoconstriction D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : The vasopressin action(s) mediated by V2 receptors include(s): A. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells B. Increased urea permeability of collecting duct cells C. Vasoconstriction D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B

The most prominent action of leukotriene B4 is: A. Vasodilatation B. Uterine contraction C. Platelet aggregation D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Description : The most prominent action of leukotriene B4 is: A. Vasodilatation B. Uterine contraction C. Platelet aggregation D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Last Answer : D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action

The smooth muscle stimulating action of 5-HT is most marked in the (a) Bronchi (b) Intestines (c) Ureter (d) Billary tract

Description : The smooth muscle stimulating action of 5-HT is most marked in the (a) Bronchi (b) Intestines (c) Ureter (d) Billary tract

Last Answer : Ans: B

A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronchodilator action, is (a) Cromolyn (b) Ephedrine (c) Isoproterenol (d) Metaproterenol (e) Metoprolol

Description : A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronchodilator action, is (a) Cromolyn (b) Ephedrine (c) Isoproterenol (d) Metaproterenol (e) Metoprolol

Last Answer : Ans: A

Caffeine is more powerful than theophylline in exerting the following action (a) Bronchodilatation (b) Cardiac stimulation (c) Diuresis (d) Augmentation of skeletal muscle contractility

Description : Caffeine is more powerful than theophylline in exerting the following action (a) Bronchodilatation (b) Cardiac stimulation (c) Diuresis (d) Augmentation of skeletal muscle contractility

Last Answer : Ans: D

Erythromycin should not be given to patient being treated with terfenadine because (a) Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine (b) Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur (c) Terfenadine inhibits metabolism of erythromycin (d) Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobal action of erythromycin

Description : Erythromycin should not be given to patient being treated with terfenadine because (a) Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine (b) Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur ... inhibits metabolism of erythromycin (d) Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobal action of erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: B

The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor

Description : The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor

Last Answer : B. Serotonin

The following serotonergic receptor functions primarily as an autoreceptor on neurones: A. 5-HT1A B. 5-HT2A C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4

Description : The following serotonergic receptor functions primarily as an autoreceptor on neurones: A. 5-HT1A B. 5-HT2A C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4

Last Answer : A. 5-HT1A

The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor: A. 5-HT1 B. 5-HT2 C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4

Description : The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor: A. 5-HT1 B. 5-HT2 C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4

Last Answer : C. 5-HT3

Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant actions C. The BZD receptor is homogeneous at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones

One of the important functions of prostacyclins is (A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation (B) Contraction of uterus (C) Decrease of gastric secretion (D) Relieving osthma

Description : One of the important functions of prostacyclins is (A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation (B) Contraction of uterus (C) Decrease of gastric secretion (D) Relieving osthma

Last Answer : Answer : A

Prostaglandins decrease all of the following except (A) Gastric acid secretion (B) Blood pressure (C) Uterine contraction (D) Platelet aggregation

Description : Prostaglandins decrease all of the following except (A) Gastric acid secretion (B) Blood pressure (C) Uterine contraction (D) Platelet aggregation

Last Answer : Answer : C

Thromboxanes cause (A) Vasodilation (B) Bronchoconstriction (C) Platelet aggregation (D) All of these

Description : Thromboxanes cause (A) Vasodilation (B) Bronchoconstriction (C) Platelet aggregation (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : C

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for ... platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII although 0% of cases are secondary to spontaneous mutation. The incidence of this abnormality is ... factor levels as low as 1% have been noted and patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count (CBC), including platelet count. C. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Description : The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count ( ... (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: The evaluation of most patients scheduled for elective surgery who do not have a history of significant bleeding disorders is somewhat controversial. An adequate history and ... suspected of having qualitative defects of platelet function (e.g., von Willebrand's disease)

Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a major proinflammatory mediator with multiple effects, including regulation of skeletal muscle proteolysis in patients with sepsis or significant injury. C. Platelet-activating factor (PAF) is a major cytokine that results in platelet aggregation, bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability. D. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), despite its short plasma half-life, appears to be a principal mediator in the evolution of sepsis and the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) ... organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Cytokines are soluble peptide molecules that are synthesized and secreted by a number of cell types in response to injury, inflammation, and infection. Cytokines, which ... is thought to play a central role in the stress response, particularly in response to endotoxemia

The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation (a) Prostacyclin (b) Prostaglandin E2 (c) Prostaglandin D2 (d) Thromboxane A2

Description : The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation (a) Prostacyclin (b) Prostaglandin E2 (c) Prostaglandin D2 (d) Thromboxane A2

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following regarding thromboxane A2 is true? C A. It degrades basement membranes B. It is produced via the lipoxygenase pathway C. It stimulates platelet aggregation D. None of these

Description : Which of the following regarding thromboxane A2 is true? C A. It degrades basement membranes B. It is produced via the lipoxygenase pathway C. It stimulates platelet aggregation D. None of these

Last Answer : It stimulates platelet aggregation

All of the following are true regarding platelet-activating factor (PAF) EXCEPT: C A. Induces platelet aggregation B. Stimulates platelet secretion C. It is a preformed molecule present in various cells D. None of these

Description : All of the following are true regarding platelet-activating factor (PAF) EXCEPT: C A. Induces platelet aggregation B. Stimulates platelet secretion C. It is a preformed molecule present in various cells D. None of these

Last Answer : It is a preformed molecule present in various cells

Thromboxane A2(TXA2): a. is derived from the membrane phospholipid b. its production is decreased by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs c. causes platelet aggregation d. all above

Description : Thromboxane A2(TXA2): a. is derived from the membrane phospholipid b. its production is decreased by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs c. causes platelet aggregation d. all above

Last Answer : all above

Which of the following colloids is expensive but rapidly expands plasma volume? a) Albumin Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply, and can cause congestive heart failure. b) Dextran Dextran is a colloid, synthetic plasma expander that interferes with platelet aggregation and is not recommended for hemorrhagic shock. c) Lactated Ringers Lactated ringers is a crystalloid, not a colloid. d) Hypertonic Saline Hypertonic saline is a crystalloid, not a colloid.

Description : Which of the following colloids is expensive but rapidly expands plasma volume? a) Albumin Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply, and can cause congestive heart failure ... , not a colloid. d) Hypertonic Saline Hypertonic saline is a crystalloid, not a colloid.

Last Answer : a) Albumin Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply, and can cause congestive heart failure.

A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation C. Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets D. Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

Description : A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. ... network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

Last Answer : A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation

The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Description : The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Last Answer : C. It is antigenic

Select the correct statement about ethamsylate: A. It checks capillary bleeding B. It inhibits platelet aggregation C. It is an antifibrinolytic drug D. It is used to fibrose bleeding piles

Description : Select the correct statement about ethamsylate: A. It checks capillary bleeding B. It inhibits platelet aggregation C. It is an antifibrinolytic drug D. It is used to fibrose bleeding piles

Last Answer : ut ethamsylate: A

Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Description :  Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Last Answer : D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation: A. Prostacyclin B. Prostaglandin E2 C. Prostaglandin D2 D. Thromboxane A2

Description : The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation: A. Prostacyclin B. Prostaglandin E2 C. Prostaglandin D2 D. Thromboxane A2

Last Answer : D. Thromboxane A2

Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide

Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Description : Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Last Answer : C. Serotonergic 5-HT4