The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor: A. Vasoconstriction B. Bradycardia C. EDRF release D. Platelet aggregation

The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3  receptor: A. Vasoconstriction B. Bradycardia C. EDRF release D. Platelet aggregation
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Answer :

B. Bradycardia
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The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation

Description : The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation

Last Answer : Ans: B

The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Description : The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Last Answer : . Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Description : Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle

The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Description : The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Last Answer : A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules for release after receptor mediated signaling b. Eicosanoids include prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins c. Eicosanoids generally have a plasma half-life measured in hours d. Physiologic responses to eicosanoids include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Description : Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules ... include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The eicosanoids are derived from arachidonic acid (eicosatetraenoic acid) and consist of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins. The eicosanoids are not ... nervous system d. Mononuclear phagocytes release a variety of proinflammatory cytokines and growth factors

The following biogenic amine is not actively taken up into its storage site by an active amine pump: A. Histamine B. 5-Hydroxy tryptamine C. Dopamine D. Noradrenaline

Description : The following biogenic amine is not actively taken up into its storage site by an active amine pump: A. Histamine B. 5-Hydroxy tryptamine C. Dopamine D. Noradrenaline

Last Answer : A. Histamine

The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation

The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation

Choose the drug which alters surface receptors on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extracorporeal circulation: A. Dipyridamole B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Heparin

Description : Choose the drug which alters surface receptors on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extracorporeal circulation: A. Dipyridamole B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Heparin

Last Answer : B. Ticlopidine

The vasopressin action(s) mediated by V2 receptors include(s): A. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells B. Increased urea permeability of collecting duct cells C. Vasoconstriction D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : The vasopressin action(s) mediated by V2 receptors include(s): A. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells B. Increased urea permeability of collecting duct cells C. Vasoconstriction D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B

Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor

Description : The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor

Last Answer : B. Serotonin

The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor: A. 5-HT1 B. 5-HT2 C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4

Description : The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor: A. 5-HT1 B. 5-HT2 C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4

Last Answer : C. 5-HT3

Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant actions C. The BZD receptor is homogeneous at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones

The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Description : The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Last Answer : C. It is antigenic

Select the correct statement about ethamsylate: A. It checks capillary bleeding B. It inhibits platelet aggregation C. It is an antifibrinolytic drug D. It is used to fibrose bleeding piles

Description : Select the correct statement about ethamsylate: A. It checks capillary bleeding B. It inhibits platelet aggregation C. It is an antifibrinolytic drug D. It is used to fibrose bleeding piles

Last Answer : ut ethamsylate: A

Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide

Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Description : Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Last Answer : C. Serotonergic 5-HT4

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% of systemic vascular resistance b. Endogenous epinephrine is the primary contributor to systemic vascular resistance c. Increased pancreatic secretion of glucagon contributes to glucose intolerance associated with injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% ... injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The neuroendocrine response to shock attempts to achieve restoration of effective blood volume, mobilization of metabolic substrates, and maintenance of central ... . Angiotensin II is an extremely effective vasoconstrictor that further augments sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time

Description : Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time

Last Answer : B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition

The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Last Answer : A. Histamine release

Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above

Description : Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

The following class(es) of drugs are clinically beneficial in bronchial asthma: A. Histamine H1 receptor antagonists B. Platelet activating factor (PAF) antagonists C. Leukotriene ( cys LT1) receptor antagonists D. All of the above

Description : The following class(es) of drugs are clinically beneficial in bronchial asthma: A. Histamine H1 receptor antagonists B. Platelet activating factor (PAF) antagonists C. Leukotriene ( cys LT1) receptor antagonists D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Leukotriene ( cys LT1) receptor antagonists

Actions of oxytocin include the following except: A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts C. Contraction of mammary myoepithelium D. Release of prostaglandins from endometrium

Description : Actions of oxytocin include the following except: A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts C. Contraction of mammary myoepithelium D. Release of prostaglandins from endometrium

Last Answer : A. Vasoconstriction

All of the following subserve as intracellular second messengers in receptor mediated signal transduction except: A. Cyclic AMP B. Inositol trisphosphate C. Diacyl glycerols D. G proteins

Description : All of the following subserve as intracellular second messengers in receptor mediated signal transduction except: A. Cyclic AMP B. Inositol trisphosphate C. Diacyl glycerols D. G proteins

Last Answer : D. G proteins

The most prominent action of leukotriene B4 is: A. Vasodilatation B. Uterine contraction C. Platelet aggregation D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Description : The most prominent action of leukotriene B4 is: A. Vasodilatation B. Uterine contraction C. Platelet aggregation D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Last Answer : D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity C. Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Description : Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism ... Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity

Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle

Description : Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle

Last Answer : A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex

The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is (a) Histamine H1 receptor (b) Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor (c) Dopamine D2 receptor (d) Opioid µ receptor

Description : The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is (a) Histamine H1 receptor (b) Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor (c) Dopamine D2 receptor (d) Opioid µ receptor

Last Answer : Ans: B

The following serotonergic receptor functions primarily as an autoreceptor on neurones: A. 5-HT1A B. 5-HT2A C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4

Description : The following serotonergic receptor functions primarily as an autoreceptor on neurones: A. 5-HT1A B. 5-HT2A C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4

Last Answer : A. 5-HT1A

The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: A. Interaction with the viral M2 protein B. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase C. Inhibition of a viral protease enzyme D. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesi

Description : The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: A. Interaction with the viral M2 protein B. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase C. Inhibition of a viral protease enzyme D. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesi

Last Answer : A. Interaction with the viral M2 protein

Aminoglycoside antibiotics exert the following action(s) on sensitive bacteria: A. Induce synthesis of defective proteins B. Make bacterial cell membrane more leaky C. Augment their own carrier mediated entry into the bacteria D. All of the above

Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics exert the following action(s) on sensitive bacteria: A. Induce synthesis of defective proteins B. Make bacterial cell membrane more leaky C. Augment their own carrier mediated entry into the bacteria D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis C. They bind to 50S ribosomes and interfere with translocation of the growing peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Last Answer : B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases tone and segmenting activity of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action

The following action(s) of heparin is/are essential for inhibition of factor Xa: A. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor XIIa B. Provision of scaffold for the clotting factor to interact with antithrombin III C. Induction of a configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B

Description : The following action(s) of heparin is/are essential for inhibition of factor Xa: A. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor XIIa B. Provision of scaffold for the clotting factor ... configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites D. Both A' and B

Last Answer : C. Induction of a configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop of Henle. C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop ... C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Last Answer : A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions

The primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is: A. Dopamine antagonism B. Adenosine antagonism C. Opening of neuronal chloride channels D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

Description : The primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is: A. Dopamine antagonism B. Adenosine antagonism C. Opening of neuronal chloride channels D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

Last Answer : D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Description : When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Last Answer : C. Therapeutic window phenomenon

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

One of the important functions of prostacyclins is (A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation (B) Contraction of uterus (C) Decrease of gastric secretion (D) Relieving osthma

Description : One of the important functions of prostacyclins is (A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation (B) Contraction of uterus (C) Decrease of gastric secretion (D) Relieving osthma

Last Answer : Answer : A

Prostaglandins decrease all of the following except (A) Gastric acid secretion (B) Blood pressure (C) Uterine contraction (D) Platelet aggregation

Description : Prostaglandins decrease all of the following except (A) Gastric acid secretion (B) Blood pressure (C) Uterine contraction (D) Platelet aggregation

Last Answer : Answer : C

Thromboxanes cause (A) Vasodilation (B) Bronchoconstriction (C) Platelet aggregation (D) All of these

Description : Thromboxanes cause (A) Vasodilation (B) Bronchoconstriction (C) Platelet aggregation (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : C

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for ... platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII although 0% of cases are secondary to spontaneous mutation. The incidence of this abnormality is ... factor levels as low as 1% have been noted and patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count (CBC), including platelet count. C. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Description : The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count ( ... (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: The evaluation of most patients scheduled for elective surgery who do not have a history of significant bleeding disorders is somewhat controversial. An adequate history and ... suspected of having qualitative defects of platelet function (e.g., von Willebrand's disease)

Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a major proinflammatory mediator with multiple effects, including regulation of skeletal muscle proteolysis in patients with sepsis or significant injury. C. Platelet-activating factor (PAF) is a major cytokine that results in platelet aggregation, bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability. D. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), despite its short plasma half-life, appears to be a principal mediator in the evolution of sepsis and the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) ... organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Cytokines are soluble peptide molecules that are synthesized and secreted by a number of cell types in response to injury, inflammation, and infection. Cytokines, which ... is thought to play a central role in the stress response, particularly in response to endotoxemia

The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation (a) Prostacyclin (b) Prostaglandin E2 (c) Prostaglandin D2 (d) Thromboxane A2

Description : The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation (a) Prostacyclin (b) Prostaglandin E2 (c) Prostaglandin D2 (d) Thromboxane A2

Last Answer : Ans: D