Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate

Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug:
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin
C. Methotrexate
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. 5-Fluorouracil
by

Related questions

Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell– cycle-specific? a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase). b) Antitumor antibiotics (bleomycin) Antitumor antibiotics are cell-cycle nonspecific. c) Alkylating agents (cisplatin) Alkylating agents are cell-cycle nonspecific. d) Nitrosureas (carmustine) Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

Description : Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell- cycle-specific? a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell-cycle-specific (S phase). b) Antitumor antibiotics ( ... agents are cell-cycle nonspecific. d) Nitrosureas (carmustine) Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

Last Answer : a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase).

The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine

Description : The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine

Last Answer : B. Vincristine

Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Description : Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Last Answer : C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects

An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)

Description : An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: C

Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and autoimmune diseases, but not in cancers: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Cyclosporine C. Methotrexate D. 6-Mercaptopurine

Description : Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and autoimmune diseases, but not in cancers: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Cyclosporine C. Methotrexate D. 6-Mercaptopurine

Last Answer : B. Cyclosporine

The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Description : The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Last Answer : D. Cisplatin

Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle (b) Derived from the bark of yew trees (c) Myelosuppression is dose-limiting (d) Peripheral neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

Description : Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the ... neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

Last Answer : Ans: E

Select the antibiotic(s) that can be used to treat nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Azithromycin B. Doxycycline C. Clindamycin D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Select the antibiotic(s) that can be used to treat nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Azithromycin B. Doxycycline C. Clindamycin D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. c) Retinoids Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Description : The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal ... an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Last Answer : a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim.

Which of the following is a reserve drug but not a disease modifying drug in rheumatoid arthritis: A. Chloroquine B. Sulfasalazine C. Prednisolone D. Methotrexate

Description : Which of the following is a reserve drug but not a disease modifying drug in rheumatoid arthritis: A. Chloroquine B. Sulfasalazine C. Prednisolone D. Methotrexate

Last Answer : C. Prednisolone

Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Description : Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Description : Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself, but its metabolite alloxanthine is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Description : Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself ... D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Last Answer : B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

A single oral dose of the following antibiotic is curative in most patients of nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Doxycycline B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Cotrimoxazole

Description : A single oral dose of the following antibiotic is curative in most patients of nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Doxycycline B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Cotrimoxazole

Last Answer : B. Azithromycin

Among the disease modifying antirheumatic drugs, fastest symptom relief is obtained with: A. Auranofin B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Sulfasalazine D. Methotrexate

Description : Among the disease modifying antirheumatic drugs, fastest symptom relief is obtained with: A. Auranofin B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Sulfasalazine D. Methotrexate

Last Answer : D. Methotrexate

Concurrent administration of aspirin interacts unfavourably with the following drugs except: A. Furosemide B. Spironolactone C. Codeine D. Methotrexate

Description : Concurrent administration of aspirin interacts unfavourably with the following drugs except: A. Furosemide B. Spironolactone C. Codeine D. Methotrexate

Last Answer : C. Codeine

Select the drug that is neither bronchodilator nor antiinflammatory, but has antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizing activity: A. Sodium cromoglycate B. Ketotifen C. Beclomethasone dipropionate D. Chlorpheniramine

Description : Select the drug that is neither bronchodilator nor antiinflammatory, but has antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizing activity: A. Sodium cromoglycate B. Ketotifen C. Beclomethasone dipropionate D. Chlorpheniramine

Last Answer : B. Ketotifen

Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Description : Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

___________ drug is usually avoided with breastfeeding. a) Ibuprofen b) propranalol c) Methotrexate d) Naproxe

Description : ___________ drug is usually avoided with breastfeeding. a) Ibuprofen b) propranalol c) Methotrexate d) Naproxe

Last Answer : c) Methotrexate  

Select the drug that is used orally to treat scabies: A. Permethrin B. Ivermectin C. Praziquantel D. Crotamiton

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Last Answer : B. Ivermectin

Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone

Description : Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone

Last Answer : D. Furazolidone

Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Description : Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Last Answer : C. Metronidazole

Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

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Last Answer : B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria

An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the drug that you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

Description : An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the ... you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

Last Answer : B. Doxycycline

Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

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Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation: A. Nelfinavir B. Nevirapine C. Stavudine D. Didanosine

Description : Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation: A. Nelfinavir B. Nevirapine C. Stavudine D. Didanosine

Last Answer : B. Nevirapine

Select the drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme: A. Zalcitabine B. Efavirenz C. Stavudine D. Nelfinavi

Description : Select the drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme: A. Zalcitabine B. Efavirenz C. Stavudine D. Nelfinavi

Last Answer : D. Nelfinavir

Select the drug that is active against both HIV and hepatitis B virus: A. Lamivudine B. Indinavir C. Didanosine D. Efavirenz

Description : Select the drug that is active against both HIV and hepatitis B virus: A. Lamivudine B. Indinavir C. Didanosine D. Efavirenz

Last Answer : A. Lamivudine

Select the drug that is fungicidal and acts by inhibiting fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme: A. Ketoconazole B. Terbinafine C. Tolnaftate D. Hamycin

Description : Select the drug that is fungicidal and acts by inhibiting fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme: A. Ketoconazole B. Terbinafine C. Tolnaftate D. Hamycin

Last Answer : B. Terbinafine

Select the antifungal drug which is administered only by the oral route: A. Amphotericin B B. Ketoconazole C. Griseofulvin D. Tolnaftate

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Last Answer : C. Griseofulvin

Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : A. Erythromycin

Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas: A. Nalidixic acid B. Azithromycin C. Bacampicillin D. Pefloxacin

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Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid

Select the sulfonamide drug which is active against Pseudomonas and is used by topical application for prophylaxis of infection in burn cases: A. Sulfadiazine B. Silver sulfadiazine C. Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole

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Last Answer : B. Silver sulfadiazine

Select the drug combination which does not exhibit supraadditive synergism: A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin B. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim

Description : Select the drug combination which does not exhibit supraadditive synergism: A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin B. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim

Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin

Select the drug(s) which afford(s) relief in gastroesophageal reflux by increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone and promoting gastric emptying, but without affecting acidity of gastric contents: A. Sodium alginate B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Description : Select the drug(s) which afford(s) relief in gastroesophageal reflux by increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone and promoting gastric emptying, but without affecting acidity of gastric contents: A. Sodium alginate B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide

Select the drug which is an inhibitor of gastric mucosal proton pump: A. Carbenoxolone sodium B. Sucralfate C. Famotidine D. Lansoprazole

Description : Select the drug which is an inhibitor of gastric mucosal proton pump: A. Carbenoxolone sodium B. Sucralfate C. Famotidine D. Lansoprazole

Last Answer : D. Lansoprazole

Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correct

Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation and LDLreceptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated receptor α: A. Lovastatin B. Atorvastatin C. Bezafibrate D. Nicotinic acid

Description : Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation and LDLreceptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated receptor α: A. Lovastatin B. Atorvastatin C. Bezafibrate D. Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : C. Bezafibrate

Select the hypocholesterolemic drug which interferes with intestinal absorption of bile salts and cholesterol, and secondarily increases cholesterol turnover in the liver: A. Gemfibrozil B. Cholestyramine C. Lovastatin D. Bezafibrate

Description : Select the hypocholesterolemic drug which interferes with intestinal absorption of bile salts and cholesterol, and secondarily increases cholesterol turnover in the liver: A. Gemfibrozil B. Cholestyramine C. Lovastatin D. Bezafibrate

Last Answer : B. Cholestyramine

Select the drug which reduces cholesterol synthesis in liver, increases expression of LDL receptors on hepatocytes and has been found to reduce mortality due to coronary artery disease: A. Simvastatin B. Nicotinic acid C. Gemfibrozil D. Colestipol (p. 577, 578) 43.1 4 3 . 1 D 43.2 4 3 . 2 C 43.3 4 3 . 3 A 43.4 4 3 . 4 A Ai

Description : Select the drug which reduces cholesterol synthesis in liver, increases expression of LDL receptors on hepatocytes and has been found to reduce mortality due to coronary artery disease: A. Simvastatin B. Nicotinic acid C. Gemfibrozil D. Colestipol (

Last Answer : A. Simvastatin

Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. A fibric acid derivative C. Gugulipid D. Nicotinic acid

Description : Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. A fibric acid derivative C. Gugulipid D. Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

Select the fibrinolytic drug(s) that is/are antigenic: A. Streptokinase B. Urokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Description : Select the fibrinolytic drug(s) that is/are antigenic: A. Streptokinase B. Urokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Last Answer : A. Streptokinase

Select the correct statement about ethamsylate: A. It checks capillary bleeding B. It inhibits platelet aggregation C. It is an antifibrinolytic drug D. It is used to fibrose bleeding piles

Description : Select the correct statement about ethamsylate: A. It checks capillary bleeding B. It inhibits platelet aggregation C. It is an antifibrinolytic drug D. It is used to fibrose bleeding piles

Last Answer : ut ethamsylate: A

A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Methyldopa

Select the drug that may improve myocardial tolerance to ischaemia and reduce anginal attacks without altering heart rate, blood pressure or myocardial O2 consumption: A. Trimetazidine B. Nicorandil C. Dipyridamole D. Nicotinic acid

Description : Select the drug that may improve myocardial tolerance to ischaemia and reduce anginal attacks without altering heart rate, blood pressure or myocardial O2 consumption: A. Trimetazidine B. Nicorandil C. Dipyridamole D. Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : A. Trimetazidine

Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor: A. Diazoxide B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Minoxidil D. Nicorandil

Description : Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor: A. Diazoxide B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Minoxidil D. Nicorandil

Last Answer : D. Nicorandil

Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Last Answer : D. Sildenafil

Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Description : Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Last Answer : C. Esmolo

Select the drug which is an ‘inodilator’ beneficial in refractory congestive heart failure: A. Nicorandil B. Amiodarone C. Amrinone D. Carvedilol

Description : Select the drug which is an ‘inodilator’ beneficial in refractory congestive heart failure: A. Nicorandil B. Amiodarone C. Amrinone D. Carvedilol

Last Answer : C. Amrinone