The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine

The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic
inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest:
A. Busulfan
B. Vincristine
C. Cytarabine
D. Procarbazine
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Vincristine
by

Related questions

Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate

Description : Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate

Last Answer : D. 5-Fluorouracil

$ Colchicine is a chemical which can arrest cell division at metaphase ! Colchicine is also called mitotic tympanic cavity of the ear.

Description : $ Colchicine is a chemical which can arrest cell division at metaphase ! Colchicine is also called mitotic tympanic cavity of the ear.

Last Answer : $ Colchicine is a chemical which can arrest cell division at metaphase ! Colchicine is also called mitotic ... D. If both As and R are wrong.

Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself, but its metabolite alloxanthine is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Description : Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself ... D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Last Answer : B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like reaction on taking alcohol: A. Dacarbazine B. Procarbazine C. Melphalan D. Hydroxyurea

Description : Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like reaction on taking alcohol: A. Dacarbazine B. Procarbazine C. Melphalan D. Hydroxyurea

Last Answer : B. Procarbazine

The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Description : The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Last Answer : D. Cisplatin

Select the antimetabolite which is toxic to Leishmania but not to mammalian cells: A. Allopurinol B. Cytarabine C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. 6-Thioguanine

Description : Select the antimetabolite which is toxic to Leishmania but not to mammalian cells: A. Allopurinol B. Cytarabine C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. 6-Thioguanine

Last Answer : A. Allopurino

Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Description : Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Description : Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A cell has 46 chromosomes at each pole in mitotic telophase. In tis division the number of chromatids at the metaphase was :-

Description : A cell has 46 chromosomes at each pole in mitotic telophase. In tis division the number of chromatids at the metaphase was :-

Last Answer : A cell has 46 chromosomes at each pole in mitotic telophase. In tis division the number of chromatids at the metaphase was :- A. 23 B. 46 C. 92 D. 69

Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing (a) same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids (b) half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids (c) half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids (d) same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids.

Description : Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing (a) same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids (b) half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids (c) half number of ... and same number of chromatids (d) same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids.

Last Answer : (d) same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids.

Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Description : Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Select the drug which is an inhibitor of gastric mucosal proton pump: A. Carbenoxolone sodium B. Sucralfate C. Famotidine D. Lansoprazole

Description : Select the drug which is an inhibitor of gastric mucosal proton pump: A. Carbenoxolone sodium B. Sucralfate C. Famotidine D. Lansoprazole

Last Answer : D. Lansoprazole

Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. A fibric acid derivative C. Gugulipid D. Nicotinic acid

Description : Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. A fibric acid derivative C. Gugulipid D. Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine

Description : Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine

Last Answer : A. Sertraline

Select the anticonvulsant drug that acts as a GABAtransaminase inhibitor: A. Gabapentin B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrig

Description : Select the anticonvulsant drug that acts as a GABAtransaminase inhibitor: A. Gabapentin B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrig

Last Answer : B. Vigabatrin

Which of the following is an efficacious antiinflammatory drug but a relatively weak inhibitor of cyclooxygenase: A. Nimesulide B. Paracetamol C. Ketoprofen D. Indomethacin

Description : Which of the following is an efficacious antiinflammatory drug but a relatively weak inhibitor of cyclooxygenase: A. Nimesulide B. Paracetamol C. Ketoprofen D. Indomethacin

Last Answer : A. Nimesulide

The following nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug is a preferential cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor: A. Tenoxicam B. Meloxicam C. Diclofenac sod. D. Ketoprofen

Description : The following nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug is a preferential cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor: A. Tenoxicam B. Meloxicam C. Diclofenac sod. D. Ketoprofen

Last Answer : B. Meloxicam

The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. c) Retinoids Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Description : The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal ... an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Last Answer : a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim.

Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema

Description : Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema

Last Answer : C. Hypoglycaemia

A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in organ transplantation as a suppressor of immunologic rejection of grafts is (A) Theophylline (B) Cytarabine (C) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (D) 6-Mercaptopurine

Description : A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in organ transplantation as a suppressor of immunologic rejection of grafts is (A) Theophylline (B) Cytarabine (C) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (D) 6-Mercaptopurine

Last Answer : Answer : D

The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Description : The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Last Answer : D. Any of the above

ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Description : ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Last Answer : D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Description : Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive to the latter C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Description : The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive ... β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases

Choose the correct statement about lovastatin: A. It markedly lowers plasma triglyceride with little effect on cholesterol level B. It is used as an adjuvant to gemfibrozil for type III hyperlipoproteinemia C. It is not effective in diabetes associated hypercholesterolemia D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Description : Choose the correct statement about lovastatin: A. It markedly lowers plasma triglyceride with little effect on cholesterol level B. It is used as an adjuvant to gemfibrozil for type III ... hypercholesterolemia D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Last Answer : D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Features of atorvastatin include the following: A. Dose to dose most potent HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. Higher ceiling of LDL-cholesterol lowering action than lovastatin C. Antioxidant property D. All of the above

Description : Features of atorvastatin include the following: A. Dose to dose most potent HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. Higher ceiling of LDL-cholesterol lowering action than lovastatin C. Antioxidant property D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the most potent and most efficacious LDLcholesterol lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor: A. Lovastatin B. Simvastatin C. Pravastatin D. Atorvastatin

Description : Choose the most potent and most efficacious LDLcholesterol lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor: A. Lovastatin B. Simvastatin C. Pravastatin D. Atorvastatin

Last Answer : D. Atorvastatin

The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Description : The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Last Answer : A. Calcium channel blocker

A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low. Which of the following lines of action is warranted: A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor B. Continue all medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor

Long term ACE inhibitor therapy may retard the progression of: A. Diabetic nephropathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Hypertensive nephropathy D. All of the above

Description : Long term ACE inhibitor therapy may retard the progression of: A. Diabetic nephropathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Hypertensive nephropathy D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death B. Reduce the incidence of fatal as well as nonfatal myocardial infarction or stroke C. Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C’

Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C

Select the correct statement abut donepezil: A. It is a topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in glaucoma B. It is a catechol-'O'-methyl transferase inhibitor used as adjuvant in parkinson's disease C. It is a cerebroselective anticholinesterase that affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease D. It is a synthetic cannabinoid with antiemetic property

Description : Select the correct statement abut donepezil: A. It is a topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in glaucoma B. It is a catechol-'O'-methyl transferase inhibitor used as adjuvant in ... affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease D. It is a synthetic cannabinoid with antiemetic property

Last Answer : C. It is a cerebroselective anticholinesterase that affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's diseas

The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease C. It affords measurable improvement in Alzheimer's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect

Description : The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in ... 's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect

Last Answer : B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease

Which of the following is labelled as a 'serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor or SNRI': A. Amineptine B. Venlafaxine C. Bupropion D. Citalopram

Description : Which of the following is labelled as a 'serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor or SNRI': A. Amineptine B. Venlafaxine C. Bupropion D. Citalopram

Last Answer : D. Citalopram

Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action

The following is a reversible and selective MAO-A inhibitor: A. Bupropion B. Entacapone C. Moclobemide D. Selegiline

Description : The following is a reversible and selective MAO-A inhibitor: A. Bupropion B. Entacapone C. Moclobemide D. Selegiline

Last Answer : C. Moclobemide

Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor: A. Selegiline B. Clorgyline C. Moclobemide D. Tranylcypromine

Description : Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor: A. Selegiline B. Clorgyline C. Moclobemide D. Tranylcypromine

Last Answer : A. Selegiline

The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Description : The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Last Answer : DD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Description : The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Last Answer : C. COMT inhibitor

Which of the following is a specific inhibitor of the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase and is useful in the treatment of methanol poisoning: A. Disulfiram B. Ethylene glycol C. Calcium leucovorin D. Fomepizole

Description : Which of the following is a specific inhibitor of the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase and is useful in the treatment of methanol poisoning: A. Disulfiram B. Ethylene glycol C. Calcium leucovorin D. Fomepizole

Last Answer : D. Fomepizole

Which of the following is a steroid 5α-reductase inhibitor that has been found useful in benign prostatic hypertrophy and male pattern baldness: A. Flutamide B. Finasteride C. Prazosin D. Minoxidil

Description : Which of the following is a steroid 5α-reductase inhibitor that has been found useful in benign prostatic hypertrophy and male pattern baldness: A. Flutamide B. Finasteride C. Prazosin D. Minoxidil

Last Answer : B. Finasteride

The thyroid inhibitor which produces the fastest response is: A. Lugol’s iodine B. Radioactive iodine C. Propylthiouracil D. Lithium carbonate

Description : The thyroid inhibitor which produces the fastest response is: A. Lugol’s iodine B. Radioactive iodine C. Propylthiouracil D. Lithium carbonate

Last Answer : A. Lugol’s iodine

Overtreatment with the following thyroid inhibitor results in enlargement of the thyroid: A. Lugol’s iodine B. Radioactive iodine C. Carbimazole D. All of the above

Description : Overtreatment with the following thyroid inhibitor results in enlargement of the thyroid: A. Lugol’s iodine B. Radioactive iodine C. Carbimazole D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Carbimazole

The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Methimazole C. Carbimazole D. Radioactive iodine

Description : The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Methimazole C. Carbimazole D. Radioactive iodine

Last Answer : A. Propyl thiouracil

The following thyroid inhibitor does not produce goiter when given in over dose: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Carbimazole C. Radioactive iodine D. Sodium thiocyanat

Description : The following thyroid inhibitor does not produce goiter when given in over dose: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Carbimazole C. Radioactive iodine D. Sodium thiocyanat

Last Answer : C. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid

The following thyroid inhibitor does not produce goiter when given in over dose: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Carbimazole C. Radioactive iodine D. Sodium thiocyanate

Description : The following thyroid inhibitor does not produce goiter when given in over dose: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Carbimazole C. Radioactive iodine D. Sodium thiocyanate

Last Answer : C. Radioactive iodine

Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma

Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Description : Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Last Answer : A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor