Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause: A. Gynaecomastia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Lupus erythematosus

Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause:
A. Gynaecomastia
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Haemolytic anaemia
D. Lupus erythematosus
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Lupus erythematosus
by

Related questions

The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Description : The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it ... erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

Chloroquine is indicated in the following disorders except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Discoid lupus erythematosus C. Photogenic skin reactions D. Lepra reaction

Description : Chloroquine is indicated in the following disorders except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Discoid lupus erythematosus C. Photogenic skin reactions D. Lepra reaction

Last Answer : B. Discoid lupus erythematosus

The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema

Description : The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema

Last Answer : A. Serum sickness

Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty

Description : Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty

Last Answer : C. Cholestatic jaundice

A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

Recombinant human erythropoietin is indicated for: A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Anaemia in patients of thalassemia D. Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients

Description : Recombinant human erythropoietin is indicated for: A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Anaemia in patients of thalassemia D. Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients

Last Answer : D. Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients

Select the diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbance as a side effect on long-term use: A. Amiloride B. Spironolactone C. Metolazone D. Acetazolamide

Description : Select the diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbance as a side effect on long-term use: A. Amiloride B. Spironolactone C. Metolazone D. Acetazolamide

Last Answer : B. Spironolactone

A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while blood picture and haemoglobin level were improved. What could be the most likely explanation: A. Folic acid was not adequately absorbed resulting in partial response B. Folate therapy has precipitated vitamin B12 deficiency in the neural tissue C. Folate therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Description : A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while ... therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Last Answer : D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following? (a) Cinchonism (b) Constipation (c) Lupus erythematosus (d) Increase in digoxin clearance (e) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism

Description : Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following? (a) Cinchonism (b) Constipation (c) Lupus erythematosus (d) Increase in digoxin clearance (e) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism

Last Answer : Ans: A

SLE stands for_________________ and is an autoimmune disease. A. squamous laceration ecchymosis B. systemic lupus erythematosus C. septic lymphodic edema

Description : SLE stands for_________________ and is an autoimmune disease. A. squamous laceration ecchymosis B. systemic lupus erythematosus C. septic lymphodic edema

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease? a. Myasthenia gravis b. Type i diabetes c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. All of the above are autoimmune disorders

Description : Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease? a. Myasthenia gravis b. Type i diabetes c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. All of the above are autoimmune disorders

Last Answer : e. All of the above are autoimmune disorders

Which one of the following applies to the disease systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. It is a type of cytotoxic hypersensitivity. b. It is often accompanied by a butterfly rash. c. It is due to an overreaction of T lymphocytes. d. It is the result of a cellular hypersensitivity.

Description : Which one of the following applies to the disease systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. It is a type of cytotoxic hypersensitivity. b. It is often accompanied by a butterfly rash. c. It is due to an overreaction of T lymphocytes. d. It is the result of a cellular hypersensitivity.

Last Answer : d. It is the result of a cellular hypersensitivity.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

Description : Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid ... , or delayed-type, hypersensitivity occurs 24-72 hours after exposure to an allergen.

Last Answer : a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

A patient has painful lesions on her buccal mucosa. Biopsy report shows acantholysis and supra basilare, your diagnosis is: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bulla lichen planus C. Erythema multiform D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Description : A patient has painful lesions on her buccal mucosa. Biopsy report shows acantholysis and supra basilare, your diagnosis is: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bulla lichen planus C. Erythema multiform D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Last Answer : A. Pemphigus vulgaris

The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema

Description : The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema

Last Answer : A. Serum sickness

Copper deficiency can cause (A) Polycythaemia (B) Leukocytopenia (C) Thrombocytopenia (D) Microcytic anaemia

Description : Copper deficiency can cause (A) Polycythaemia (B) Leukocytopenia (C) Thrombocytopenia (D) Microcytic anaemia

Last Answer : Answer : D

16.10 Hyperprolactinemia can cause the following except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Gynaecomastia C. Multiple ovulation D. Depressed fertility

Description : 16.10 Hyperprolactinemia can cause the following except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Gynaecomastia C. Multiple ovulation D. Depressed fertility

Last Answer : . Multiple ovulation

The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia

Description : The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia

Last Answer : B. Tardive dyskinesia

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Description : A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Last Answer : A. Epoetin

Megaloblastic anaemia developing under the following condition is due entirely to folate deficiency not associated with vitamin B12 deficiency: A. Malnutrition B. Blind loop syndrome C. Phenytoin therapy D. Pregnancy

Description : Megaloblastic anaemia developing under the following condition is due entirely to folate deficiency not associated with vitamin B12 deficiency: A. Malnutrition B. Blind loop syndrome C. Phenytoin therapy D. Pregnancy

Last Answer : C. Phenytoin therapy

A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week

Description : A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week

Last Answer : C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week

Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy

The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

Description : The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

Last Answer : B. Anaemia during pregnancy

Haematuria can occur in (A) Haemolytic anaemia (B) Mismatched blood transfusion (C) Yellow fever (D) Stone in urinary tract

Description : Haematuria can occur in (A) Haemolytic anaemia (B) Mismatched blood transfusion (C) Yellow fever (D) Stone in urinary tract

Last Answer : Answer : D

The “Primaquin sensitivity types of haemolytic anaemia has been found to relate to reduced R.B.C activity of which enzyme? (A) Pyruvate kinase deficiency (B) Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency (C) Glucose-6-p dehydrogenase deficiency (D) Hexokinase deficiency

Description : The “Primaquin sensitivity types of haemolytic anaemia has been found to relate to reduced R.B.C activity of which enzyme? (A) Pyruvate kinase deficiency (B) Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency (C) Glucose-6-p dehydrogenase deficiency (D) Hexokinase deficiency

Last Answer : C

The following conditions give rise to red blood cells with increased mean cell volume: a. anaemia of chronic disease. b. pernicious anaemia. c. anaemia due to renal failure. d. haemolytic anaemi

Description : The following conditions give rise to red blood cells with increased mean cell volume: a. anaemia of chronic disease. b. pernicious anaemia. c. anaemia due to renal failure. d. haemolytic anaemi

Last Answer : pernicious anaemia.

Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities

Description : Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities

Last Answer : C. Kidney damage

Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of: A. Bromocriptine B. Cimetidine C. Famotidine D. Levodopa

Description : Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of: A. Bromocriptine B. Cimetidine C. Famotidine D. Levodopa

Last Answer : B. Cimetidine

16.13 Gynaecomastia can be treated with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Cimetidine C. Bromocriptine D. Metoclopramide

Description : 16.13 Gynaecomastia can be treated with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Cimetidine C. Bromocriptine D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : C. Bromocriptine

Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment

Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Description : Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Last Answer : B. Reduce adult stature

Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Last Answer : D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Aspirin is contraindicated in children suffering from influenza or similar viral infection because of increased risk of: A. Gastric bleeding B. Thrombocytopenia C. Fancony syndrome D. Reye’s syndrome

Description : Aspirin is contraindicated in children suffering from influenza or similar viral infection because of increased risk of: A. Gastric bleeding B. Thrombocytopenia C. Fancony syndrome D. Reye’s syndrome

Last Answer : D. Reye’s syndrome

Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Description : Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

Accidental poisonings are common with both aspirin and ibuprofen, two OC drugs available in tasty chewable tablets. In cases of overdose, aspirin is more likely than ibuprofen to cause (a) Autonomic Instability (b) Hepatic necrosis (c) Metabolic acidosis (d) Thrombocytopenia (e) Ventricular arrhythmias

Description : Accidental poisonings are common with both aspirin and ibuprofen, two OC drugs available in tasty chewable tablets. In cases of overdose, aspirin is more likely than ibuprofen to cause (a) ... Instability (b) Hepatic necrosis (c) Metabolic acidosis (d) Thrombocytopenia (e) Ventricular arrhythmias

Last Answer : Ans: C

A semiconscious patient of haemorrhagic cerebral stroke has been brought to the emergency. His blood pressure is 240/120 mmHg. Select the procedure to lower his blood pressure as rapidly as possible: A. Sublingual nifedipine B. Intramuscular injection of hydralazine C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside D. Intravenous injection of clonidin

Description : A semiconscious patient of haemorrhagic cerebral stroke has been brought to the emergency. His blood pressure is 240/120 mmHg. Select the procedure to lower his blood pressure as ... injection of hydralazine C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside D. Intravenous injection of clonidin

Last Answer : C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprussid

The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide

Description : The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide

Last Answer : TA. Nifedipine + hydralazine

The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril

Description : The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril

Last Answer : A. Clonidine

The following antihypertensive is used topically to treat alopacia areata: A. Hydralazine B. Prazosin C. Minoxidil D. Indapamide

Description : The following antihypertensive is used topically to treat alopacia areata: A. Hydralazine B. Prazosin C. Minoxidil D. Indapamide

Last Answer : C. Minoxidil

Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin

Description : Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin

Last Answer : B. Hydralazine

Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Description : Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Nifedipine

Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener: A. Nicorandil B. Hydralazine C. Glibenclamide D. Amiloride

Description : Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener: A. Nicorandil B. Hydralazine C. Glibenclamide D. Amiloride

Last Answer : D. Amiloride

Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine

Description : Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : B. Enalapril

The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Description : The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Last Answer : A. Calcium channel blocker

Drug cumulation is the basis of organ toxicity of the following drug when used for prolonged periods: A. Prednisolone B. Chloroquine C. Aspirin D. Hydralazine

Description : Drug cumulation is the basis of organ toxicity of the following drug when used for prolonged periods: A. Prednisolone B. Chloroquine C. Aspirin D. Hydralazine

Last Answer : B. Chloroquine

A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine

Description : A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine

Last Answer : C. Magnesium sulfate

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

The antipsychotic drug most likely to cause ocular toxicity on long-term use is: A. Thioridazine B. Haloperidol C. Flupenthixol D. Pimozide

Description : The antipsychotic drug most likely to cause ocular toxicity on long-term use is: A. Thioridazine B. Haloperidol C. Flupenthixol D. Pimozide

Last Answer : A. Thioridazine

A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Description : A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Last Answer : C. Three weeks