The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of codeine into morphine C. Its altered form is responsible for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

The following is not true of the cytochrome P450
isoenzyme CYP2D6:
A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl
benzoquinone immine from paracetamol
B. It is involved in demethylation of codeine into
morphine
C. Its altered form is responsible for poor capacity to
hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol
D. It is inhibited by quinidine
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl
benzoquinone immine from paracetamol
by

Related questions

The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of codeine into morphine C. Its altered form is responsible for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

Description : The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of ... for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

Last Answer : A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamo

N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because: A. It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex B. It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of paracetamol C. It is a free radical scavenger D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

Description : N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because: A. It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex B. It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of ... scavenger D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

Last Answer : D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2

Description : Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2

Last Answer : A. CYP 3A4

The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

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Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is: A. It is not inhibited by indomethacin B. It is inducible C. It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa D. It is found only in foetal tissues

Description : The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is: A. It is not inhibited by indomethacin B. It is inducible C. It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa D. It is found only in foetal tissues

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Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2

Description : Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2

Last Answer : A. CYP 3A4

The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is (a) It is not inhibited by indomethacin (b) It is inducible (c) It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa (d) It is found only in foetal tissues

Description : The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is (a) It is not inhibited by indomethacin (b) It is inducible (c) It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa (d) It is found only in foetal tissues

Last Answer : Ans: B

The polyene antibiotics act by: A. Inhibiting fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme B. Binding to ergosterol and creating micropores in fungal cell membrane C. Inhibiting fungal DNA synthesis D. Disorienting microtubules in fungal cells

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The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration C. Long terminal elimination half-life D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

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The following statement is not true of carbamazepine: A. It generates an active metabolite B. Its plasma half life decreases to nearly half of the original value after chronic use C. It is being used in mania D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures

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The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling

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Which one of the following statements about cytochrome P450 is wrong? (a) It is a coloured cell. (b) It is an enzyme involved in oxidation reactions. (c) It has an important role in metabolism. (d) It contains iron

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Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

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Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

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Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

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Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

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The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect

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Cytochrome P450 is: a. involves in phase I metabolic reactions b. found in lysosomes c. found in hepatocytes d. found in mitochondria

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Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine

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Norpethidine produced as a metabolite of pethidine is responsible for the following effect: A. Euphoria B. Excitement C. Analgesia D. Respiratory depression

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The metabolite which sustains urea cycle is (A) Ornithine (B) Citrulline (C) Carbamoyl phosphate (D) n-acetyl glutamate

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Entacapone differs from tolcapone in the following respect/respects: A. It is shorter acting B. It acts only by inhibiting peripheral metabolism of levodopa C. It is not hepatotoxic D. All of the above are correct

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Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible for attracting and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

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Opium alkaloids are: (1) Codeine (2) Diethyllysergic acid (3) Morphine (4) Saffron

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Out of morphine, N-Acetyl-para-aminophenol, Diazepam and tetrahydrocatenol, which can be used as analgesic without causing addiction ?

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All the following statements about acetyl CoA carboxylase are true except: (A) It is activated by citrate (B) It is inhibited by palmitoyl CoA (C) It can undergo covalent modification (D) Its dephosphorylated form is inactive

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The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

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Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

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The isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is expressed constitutively at the following site: A. Gastric mucosa B. Neutrophils C. Blood platelets D. Juxtaglomerular apparatus

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What is true of isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH): A. An active transport mechanism concentrates INH inside sensitive mycobacteria B. Sensitive mycobacteria generate an active metabolite of INH through a catalaseperoxidase enzyme C. The most common mechanism of INH resistance is mutation i

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What is the common name for the drug acetyl salicylic acid? A. Paracetamol B. Analgin C. Aspirin (Answer) D. Penicillin

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Activity of cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by (A) Sulphite (B) Sulphate (C) Arsenite (D) Cyanide

Description : Activity of cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by (A) Sulphite (B) Sulphate (C) Arsenite (D) Cyanide

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The resting membrane potential of a cell a. is dependent on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater than the permeability to Na+ b. falls to zero immediately when Na+, K+ ATPase in the membrane is inhibited c. is usually equal to the equilibrium potential for K+ d. is usually equal to the equilibrium potential for Na+ e. is markedly altered if the extracellular Na+ concentration is increased

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Last Answer : is dependent on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater than the permeability to Na+

A metabolite which is common to pathways of cholesterol biosynthesis from acetyl-CoA and cholecalciferol formation from cholesterol is (A) Zymosterol (B) Lumisterol (C) Ergosterol (D) 7 Dehydrocholesterol

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Last Answer : Answer : D

Which of the following metabolite integrates glucose and fatty acid metabolism? (A) Acetyl CoA (B) Pyruvate (C) Citrate (D) Lactate

Description : Which of the following metabolite integrates glucose and fatty acid metabolism? (A) Acetyl CoA (B) Pyruvate (C) Citrate (D) Lactate

Last Answer : A

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

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The following opioid analgesic is similar to codeine in pharmacological profile but is less constipating: A. Methadone B. Buprenorphine C. Butorphanol D. Dextropropoxyphene

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Penicillins interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis by: A. Inhibiting synthesis of N-acetyl muramic acid pentapeptide B. Inhibiting conjugation between N-acetyl muramic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine C. Inhibiting transpeptidases and carboxypeptidases which cross link the peptidoglycan residues D. Counterfeiting for D-alanine in the bacterial cell wall

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Last Answer : C. Inhibiting transpeptidases and carboxypeptidases which cross link the peptidoglycan residues

The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

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Last Answer : B. Verapami

Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

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Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

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The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

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Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Last Answer : D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

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Last Answer : C. Atrial fibrillation

The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

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Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity