yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has
the following characteristic:
A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more
than activated channels
B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than
inactivated channels
C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels
D. It produces more prominent blockade of
atrial than ventricular Na+ channels
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more
than activated channels
by

Related questions

The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

Description : The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

Last Answer : B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels

The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

Description : The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

Last Answer : A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker

A resting nerve is relatively resistant to blockade by lignocaine compared to one which is repeatedly stimulated because: A. Lignocaine penetrates resting nerve membrane poorly B. Lignocaine binds more avidly to the inactivated Na+ channel C. Nerve impulse promotes ionization of lignocaine D. Nodes of Ranvier are inaccessible in the resting state

Description : A resting nerve is relatively resistant to blockade by lignocaine compared to one which is repeatedly stimulated because: A. Lignocaine penetrates resting nerve membrane poorly B. Lignocaine binds ... promotes ionization of lignocaine D. Nodes of Ranvier are inaccessible in the resting state

Last Answer : B. Lignocaine binds more avidly to the inactivated Na+ chan

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Digoxin produces the following effect(s) in atrial flutter: A. Reduces ventricular rate B. Prevents shift of A-V block to a lower grade C. Converts atrial flutter to atrial fibrillation D. All of the above

Description : Digoxin produces the following effect(s) in atrial flutter: A. Reduces ventricular rate B. Prevents shift of A-V block to a lower grade C. Converts atrial flutter to atrial fibrillation D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Sensitivity of a nerve fibre to blockade by lignocaine depends on: A. Whether the fibre is sensory or motor B. Whether the fibre is myelinated or nonmyelinated C. Internodal distances in the fibre D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Sensitivity of a nerve fibre to blockade by lignocaine depends on: A. Whether the fibre is sensory or motor B. Whether the fibre is myelinated or nonmyelinated C. Internodal distances in the fibre D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

Description : The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

Last Answer : A. Na+ channel blockade

Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Last Answer : D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

What is the usual response to digoxin in a patient of atrial fibrillation: A. Restoration of normal sinus rhythm B. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to atrial flutter C. Increase in atrial fibrillation frequency, but decrease in ventricular rate D. Decrease in atrial fibrillation frequency, but increase in ventricular rate

Description : What is the usual response to digoxin in a patient of atrial fibrillation: A. Restoration of normal sinus rhythm B. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to atrial flutter C. Increase in ... decrease in ventricular rate D. Decrease in atrial fibrillation frequency, but increase in ventricular rate

Last Answer : C. Increase in atrial fibrillation frequency, but decrease in ventricular rate

The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Description : The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it ... erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Description : The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Last Answer : A. Mexiletine

The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Description : The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Last Answer : A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci

Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone

Description : Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone

Last Answer : A. Lignocaine

The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Description : ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : C. Atrial fibrillation

Quinidine has the following action on electrophysiological properties of the heart except: A. Decreases automaticity of Purkinje fibres B. Abolishes after depolarizations C. Prolongs refractory period of atrial fibres D. Decreases membrane responsiveness of atrial and ventricular fibres

Description : Quinidine has the following action on electrophysiological properties of the heart except: A. Decreases automaticity of Purkinje fibres B. Abolishes after depolarizations C. Prolongs refractory period of atrial fibres D. Decreases membrane responsiveness of atrial and ventricular fibres

Last Answer : B. Abolishes after depolarizations

The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

Description : The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

Last Answer : D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

At the muscle end-plate, d-tubocurarine reduces the: A. Number of Na+ channels B. Duration for which the Na+ channels remain open C. Ion conductance of the open Na+ channel D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

Description : At the muscle end-plate, d-tubocurarine reduces the: A. Number of Na+ channels B. Duration for which the Na+ channels remain open C. Ion conductance of the open Na+ channel D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

Last Answer : D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart B. They have no effect on A-V conduction C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels D. All of the above

Description : The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart B. They have no effect on A-V conduction C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora C. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low

The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally blocks α1 and α2 adrenoceptors C. It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Description : The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally ... It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade

The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally blocks α1 and α2 adrenoceptors C. It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Description : The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally ... It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade

Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood concentrations of the local anaesthetic are lower after epidural anaesthesia D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

Frequency dependent cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by: A. Verapamil B. Nifedipine C. Felodipine D. Amlodipin

Description : Frequency dependent cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by: A. Verapamil B. Nifedipine C. Felodipine D. Amlodipin

Last Answer : A. Verapamil

The GABAB receptor: A. Is an intrinsic ion channel containing receptor B. Mediates neuronal depolarization C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline D. Regulates intracellular cAMP

Description : The GABAB receptor: A. Is an intrinsic ion channel containing receptor B. Mediates neuronal depolarization C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline D. Regulates intracellular cAMP

Last Answer : C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: D

The following are true about cardiac contraction: a. the P wave initiates the atrial contraction b. atrial contribution to ventricular filling is most effective at fast heart rate. c. b wave is generated by atrial contraction d. fourth heart sound occurs during atrial contraction

Description : The following are true about cardiac contraction: a. the P wave initiates the atrial contraction b. atrial contribution to ventricular filling is most effective at fast heart rate. c. b wave is generated by atrial contraction d. fourth heart sound occurs during atrial contraction

Last Answer : fourth heart sound occurs during atrial contraction

if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and atropinic agents during sedation or anesthesia for cardioversion. Ketamine is relatively contraindicatedthe cause of premature ventricular contraction? decrease O2 supply to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Description : if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and ... to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Last Answer : decrease O2 supply to the muscle

Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Description : Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Last Answer : C. Astemizole

Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Description : Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

Tetrodotoxin blocks nerve impulse/junctional transmission by: A. Anticholinergic action B. Depleting acetylcholine C. Blocking Na+ channels D. Blocking Ca2+ channels

Description : Tetrodotoxin blocks nerve impulse/junctional transmission by: A. Anticholinergic action B. Depleting acetylcholine C. Blocking Na+ channels D. Blocking Ca2+ channels

Last Answer : C. Blocking Na+ channels

Tetrodotoxin blocks nerve impulse/junctional transmission by: A. Anticholinergic action B. Depleting acetylcholine C. Blocking Na+ channels D. Blocking Ca2+ channels

Description : Tetrodotoxin blocks nerve impulse/junctional transmission by: A. Anticholinergic action B. Depleting acetylcholine C. Blocking Na+ channels D. Blocking Ca2+ channels

Last Answer : C. Blocking Na+ channels

Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Description : Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or blood pressure C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Description : Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or ... C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery

Amiloride inhibits K+ excretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts by blocking: A. Electrogenic K+ channels B. Electrogenic Na+ channels C. Nonelectrogenic Na+-Cl– symport D. H+K+ATPase

Description : Amiloride inhibits K+ excretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts by blocking: A. Electrogenic K+ channels B. Electrogenic Na+ channels C. Nonelectrogenic Na+-Cl– symport D. H+K+ATPase

Last Answer : B. Electrogenic Na+ channels

Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Description : Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

e primary mechanism by which general anaesthetics produce their action is: A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones B. Blocking voltage sensitive Na+ channels in neuronal membrane C. Depressing metabolic activity of cerebral neurones D. Blocking production of high energy phosphates in the brain

Description : e primary mechanism by which general anaesthetics produce their action is: A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones B. Blocking voltage sensitive Na+ channels in neuronal ... activity of cerebral neurones D. Blocking production of high energy phosphates in the brain

Last Answer : A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones

Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action

Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin. C. Premature atrial or ventricular contractions on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Description : Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm ... on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin concentration is a misleading sign. Evidence of congestive ... or ventricular contractions on the electrocardiogram are less strong determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication

Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues little myocardial depression and hypotension (c) It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: D

In addition to pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect, Tetralogy of Fallot includes: A A. Dextroposition of aorta and right ventricular hypertrophy B. Dextroposition of aorta and left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy and left atrial dilatation D. None of these

Description : In addition to pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect, Tetralogy of Fallot includes: A A. Dextroposition of aorta and right ventricular hypertrophy B. Dextroposition of aorta and left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy and left atrial dilatation D. None of these

Last Answer : Dextroposition of aorta and right ventricular hypertrophy

Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function. (a) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands. (b) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle. (c) Progesterone - corpus luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs. (d) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall, increases the blood pressure.

Description : Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function. (a) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands. (b) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the ... sex organs. (d) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall, increases the blood pressure.

Last Answer : (b) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle

The pacesetter in the heart is called (a) sino-atrial node (SAN) (b) atrio-ventricular node (AVN) (c) Purkinje fibres (d) papillary muscle.

Description : The pacesetter in the heart is called (a) sino-atrial node (SAN) (b) atrio-ventricular node (AVN) (c) Purkinje fibres (d) papillary muscle.

Last Answer : (b) atrio-ventricular node (AVN)

When the balloon on the distal tip of a pulmonary artery catheter is inflated and a pressure is measured, the measurement obtained is referred to as the a) pulmonary artery wedge pressure. When the balloon is inflated, the tip of the catheter floats into smaller branches of the pulmonary arty until it can no longer be passed and the pressure is recorded, reflecting left atrial pressure and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

Description : When the balloon on the distal tip of a pulmonary artery catheter is inflated and a pressure is measured, the measurement obtained is referred to as the a) pulmonary artery wedge ... Cardiac output is determined through thermodilution involving injection of fluid into the pulmonary artery catheter.

Last Answer : a) pulmonary artery wedge pressure. When the balloon is inflated, the tip of the catheter floats into smaller branches of the pulmonary arty until it can no longer be passed and the pressure is recorded, reflecting left atrial pressure and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except: A. Systemic vascular resistance B. Right atrial pressure C. Cardiac output D. Heart rate × pressure product

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except: A. Systemic vascular resistance B. Right atrial pressure C. Cardiac output D. Heart rate × pressure product

Last Answer : C. Cardiac output

Positive control of induction is best described as a control system in which an operon functions (A) Unless it is switched off by a derepressed repressor protein (B) Only after a repressor protein is inactivated by an inducer (C) Only after an inducer protein, which can be inactivated by a corepressor, switches it on (D) Only after an inducer protein, which is activated by an inducer, switch it on

Description : Positive control of induction is best described as a control system in which an operon functions (A) Unless it is switched off by a derepressed repressor protein (B) Only after a repressor protein is ... on (D) Only after an inducer protein, which is activated by an inducer, switch it on

Last Answer : Answer : D