Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Last Answer : C. Verapami
Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet
Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia
Last Answer : C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril
Last Answer : A. Nifedipine
Description : The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil
Last Answer : B. Nifedipine
Description : The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine
Last Answer : C. Flunarizine
Description : The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels
Last Answer : B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
Description : Shortacting nifedipine formulation is not recommended now for treatment of hypertension because: A. It tends to increase heart rate and cardiac work B. It invokes pronounced reflex sympathetic discharges C. It can impair haemodynamics in patients with diastolic dysfunction D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels
Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
Description : The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period
Last Answer : A. Na+ channel blockade
Description : A resting nerve is relatively resistant to blockade by lignocaine compared to one which is repeatedly stimulated because: A. Lignocaine penetrates resting nerve membrane poorly B. Lignocaine binds ... promotes ionization of lignocaine D. Nodes of Ranvier are inaccessible in the resting state
Last Answer : B. Lignocaine binds more avidly to the inactivated Na+ chan
Description : The GABAB receptor: A. Is an intrinsic ion channel containing receptor B. Mediates neuronal depolarization C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline D. Regulates intracellular cAMP
Last Answer : C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Maximal medical therapy for treating angina pectoris is represented by which of the following choices? (a) Diltiazem, verapamil, nitroglycerin (b) Atenolol, isoproterenol, diltiazem (c) Verapamil, nifedipine, propranolol (d) Isosorbide, atenolol, diltiazem (e) Nitroglycerin, isosorbide, atenolol
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : A drug lacking vasodilator properties that is useful in angina is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) Metoprolol (c) NIfedipine (d) Nitroglycerin (e) Verapamil
Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori
Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect
Description : Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently ... higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade
Last Answer : A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres
Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics
Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias
Description : Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases cardiac contractility? (a) Digoxin (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Quinidine (e) Verapamil
Description : Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Clonidine B. Captopril C. Verapamil D. Prazosin
Last Answer : B. Captopril
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole
Last Answer : A. Propranolol
Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil
Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect
Description : The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin
Last Answer : B. Adenosine
Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine
Last Answer : B. Verapami
Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone
Last Answer : A. Lignocaine
Description : A semiconscious patient of haemorrhagic cerebral stroke has been brought to the emergency. His blood pressure is 240/120 mmHg. Select the procedure to lower his blood pressure as ... injection of hydralazine C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside D. Intravenous injection of clonidin
Last Answer : C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprussid
Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Description : The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection
Last Answer : A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine
Description : The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide
Last Answer : TA. Nifedipine + hydralazine
Description : The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril
Last Answer : A. Clonidine
Description : The following drug has been found to improve urine flow in elderly males with benign prostatic hypertrophy: A. Nifedipine B. Prazosin C. Disopyramide D. Imipramine
Last Answer : B. Prazosin
Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa
Last Answer : C. Atenolol
Description : Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril
Description : Which of the following tocolytics used for suppressing labour is most likely to compromise placental perfusion: A. Salbutamol B. Ethyl alcohol C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nifedipine
Last Answer : D. Nifedipine
Description : Which of the following will result from blockade of H2 receptors? (a) Decreased camp in cardiac muscle (b) Increased camp in cardiac muscle (c) Decreased IP3 in gastric mucosa (d) Increased IP3 in gastric mucosa (e) Increased IP3 in smooth muscle
Description : Anthelmintic action of piperazine is due to: A. Interference with ATP generation in the worm B. Blockade of glucose uptake by the worm C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action D. Depolarization of nematode muscle by activating nicotinic receptors
Last Answer : C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action
Description : Select the opioid antagonist that is preferred for long term opioid blockade therapy of post addicts: A. Nalorphine B. Naloxone C. Naltrexone D. Nalbuphine
Last Answer : C. Naltrexone
Description : Adaptive changes in brain monoamine turnover due to blockade of noradrenaline/5-HT reuptake is credited with the following effect: A. Antipsychotic B. Antianxiety C. Antiparkinsonian D. Antidepressant
Last Answer : D. Antidepressant
Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes
Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia
Description : Low concentration of bupivacaine is preferred for spinal / epidural obstetric analgesia because: A. It has a longer duration of action B. It can produce sensory blockade without paralysing abdominal muscles C. ... in maternal tissues so that less reaches the foetus D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct
Description : Sensitivity of a nerve fibre to blockade by lignocaine depends on: A. Whether the fibre is sensory or motor B. Whether the fibre is myelinated or nonmyelinated C. Internodal distances in the fibre D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol
Last Answer : A. Streptomycin
Description : Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis
Last Answer : C. Histamine release
Description : The fall in blood pressure caused by d-tubocurarine is due to: A. Reduced venous return B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. All of the above
Description : The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above