The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

The following is not true of quinidine:
A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily
in the open state
B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
C. It produces frequency dependent blockade
of myocardial Na+ channels
D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
by

Related questions

yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

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Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels

The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

Description : The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

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The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

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Last Answer : A. Na+ channel blockade

At the muscle end-plate, d-tubocurarine reduces the: A. Number of Na+ channels B. Duration for which the Na+ channels remain open C. Ion conductance of the open Na+ channel D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

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Frequency dependent cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by: A. Verapamil B. Nifedipine C. Felodipine D. Amlodipin

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The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

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The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

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The positive inotropic action of digoxin takes several hours to develop because: A. Binding of digoxin to Na+K+ATPase is slow B. After Na+K+ATPase inhibition by digoxin, Ca2+ loading of myocardial fibres occurs progressively with each contraction C. Digoxin inhibits Na+K+ATPase through modification of gene function which takes time D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

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hat is/are the consequence(s) of myocardial Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition by digoxin: A. Increased intracellular Na+ ion concentration B. Increased cytosolic Ca2+ ion concentration C. Increased intracellular K+ ion concentration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

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A resting nerve is relatively resistant to blockade by lignocaine compared to one which is repeatedly stimulated because: A. Lignocaine penetrates resting nerve membrane poorly B. Lignocaine binds more avidly to the inactivated Na+ channel C. Nerve impulse promotes ionization of lignocaine D. Nodes of Ranvier are inaccessible in the resting state

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Amiloride inhibits K+ excretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts by blocking: A. Electrogenic K+ channels B. Electrogenic Na+ channels C. Nonelectrogenic Na+-Cl– symport D. H+K+ATPase

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Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

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Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

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Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

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The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally blocks α1 and α2 adrenoceptors C. It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

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Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial infarction due to estrogen B. Blocks the increased risk of endometrial carcinoma due to estrogen C. Reverses vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

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Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood concentrations of the local anaesthetic are lower after epidural anaesthesia D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

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he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect C. It can inhibit insulin release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

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Tetrodotoxin blocks nerve impulse/junctional transmission by: A. Anticholinergic action B. Depleting acetylcholine C. Blocking Na+ channels D. Blocking Ca2+ channels

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Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres B. More slender fibres have shorter internodal distances C. Small sensory fibres generate higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade

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Amiloride has the following effect on urinary cation excretion: A. Decreases both K+ and H+ ion excretion B. Decreases K+ excretion but increases H+ ion excretion C. Increases K+ but decreases Na+ excretion D. Decreases both Na+ and K+ excretion

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e primary mechanism by which general anaesthetics produce their action is: A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones B. Blocking voltage sensitive Na+ channels in neuronal membrane C. Depressing metabolic activity of cerebral neurones D. Blocking production of high energy phosphates in the brain

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Adaptive changes in brain monoamine turnover due to blockade of noradrenaline/5-HT reuptake is credited with the following effect: A. Antipsychotic B. Antianxiety C. Antiparkinsonian D. Antidepressant

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The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

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Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

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The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

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The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of codeine into morphine C. Its altered form is responsible for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

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Last Answer : A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade

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Last Answer : Ans: B

The following action of digoxin is responsible for beneficial effect in auricular fibrillation: A. Increased myocardial contractility B. Suppression of SA node C. Depression of A-V conduction D. Enhanced Purkinje fibre automaticity

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Last Answer : C. Depression of A-V conduction

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b) and (c) Ans: D 68. In heart, potassium channels determine (a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

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Last Answer : Ans: D

The 'new formula' WHO-ORS differs from the older 'standard formula' WHO-ORS in the following respect(s): A. It has lower Na+ ion and glucose concentration B. It has higher K+ ion concentration C. It has no basic salt D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : The 'new formula' WHO-ORS differs from the older 'standard formula' WHO-ORS in the following respect(s): A. It has lower Na+ ion and glucose concentration B. It has higher K+ ion concentration C. It has no basic salt D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : A. It has lower Na+ ion and glucose concentration

Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or blood pressure C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

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Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle: A. Dipyridamole B. Minoxidil C. Diazoxide D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle: A. Dipyridamole B. Minoxidil C. Diazoxide D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

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Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers blood glucose in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

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Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus

The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart B. They have no effect on A-V conduction C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels D. All of the above

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The following factor delays induction with an inhaled general anaesthetic: A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch B. Hyperventilation C. Low blood:gas partition coefficient of the anaesthetic D. Inclusion of 5% carbon dioxide in the inhaled gas mixture

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Last Answer : A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch

The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Last Answer : B. Verapami

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Last Answer : B. Amiodarone