Description : The preferred regimen for preventing duodenal ulcer relapse is: A. Maintenance antacid regimen B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen C. On demand intermittent H2 blocker regimen D. Maintenance sucralfate regimen
Last Answer : B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen
Description : Compared to H2 blockers, omeprazole affords the following: A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster healing of duodenal ulcer C. Higher efficacy in healing reflux esophagitis D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain
Last Answer : C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach
Description : What is true of acid control therapy with H2 blockers: A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers B. It checks bleeding in case of bleeding peptic ulcer C. It prevents gastroesophageal reflux D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers
Description : The most important drawback of sucralfate in the treatment of duodenal ulcer is: A. Low ulcer healing efficacy B. Poor relief of ulcer pain C. High incidence of side effects D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day
Last Answer : D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day
Description : Sucralfate promotes healing of duodenal ulcer by: A. Enhancing gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion B. Coating the ulcer and preventing the action of acid-pepsin on ulcer base C. Promoting regeneration of mucosa D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : B. Coating the ulcer and preventing the action of acid-pepsin on ulcer base
Description : The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding ... side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse
Last Answer : B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers
Description : Eradication of H.pylori along with gastric antisecretory drugs affords the following benefit(s): A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster ulcer healing C. Reduced chance of ulcer relapse D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : In peptic ulcer, antacids are now primarily used for: A. Prompt pain relief B. Ulcer healing C. Preventing ulcer relapse D. Control of bleeding from the ulcer
Last Answer : A. Prompt pain relief
Description : The primary mechanism by which prostaglandins promote ulcer healing is: A. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion B. Augmentation of bicarbonate buffered mucus layer covering gastroduodenal mucosa C. Increased bicarbonate secretion in gastric juice D. Increased turnover of gastric mucosal cell
Last Answer : B. Augmentation of bicarbonate buffered mucus layer covering gastroduodenal mucosa
Description : Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine
Last Answer : A. Cimetidine
Description : The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate
Last Answer : C. Proton pump inhibitors
Description : The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored
Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability
Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer
Description : Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction is contraindicated in the presence of the following except: A. Peptic ulcer B. Ventricular extrasystoles C. History of recent trauma D. Severe hypertension
Last Answer : B. Ventricular extrasystoles
Description : Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right ... smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.
Last Answer : Answer: BDCAE DISCUSSION: If one considers the constellation of risk factors for pulmonary complications that is provided in tabular form in the accompanying chapter, one should ... is associated with relatively little postoperative pain, and provides free and unrestricted respiratory function
Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.
Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.
Description : When gastric analysis testing reveals excess secretion of gastric acid, which of the following diagnoses is supported? a) Duodenal ulcer Patients with duodenal ulcers usually secrete an excess ... anemia Patients with pernicious anemia secrete no acid under basal conditions or after stimulation.
Last Answer : a) Duodenal ulcer Patients with duodenal ulcers usually secrete an excess amount of hydrochloric acid.
Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc
Description : A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement
Last Answer : . Started immediately
Description : Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. ... for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more
Last Answer : B. One year fixed duration for all cases
Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin
Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen
Description : he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above
Description : A project activity has several components as indicated below; S. No. Activity Preceded by Duration (in Weeks) 1 A - 8 2 B A 6 3 C A 12 4 D B 4 5 E D 5 6 F B 12 7 G E& F ... H 5 10 J I & G 6 d. Prepare a PERT chart, estimate the duration of the project and identify the critical path.
Last Answer : PERT Diagram based on Activity on Arrow . E D 5 G B 5 9 J, 6 A 6 F,12 I ,5 8 c 12 H 8 OR PERT Diagram based on Activity on Node …………………….6 marks a. Critical Path: A-B-F-G-J …………………….1 mark b. Estimated Project Duration: 41 weeks
Description : A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while ... therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system
Last Answer : D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system
Description : The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases
Last Answer : A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy
Description : A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months
Last Answer : C. Three weeks
Description : Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by ... leads to thyroid escape' D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels
Last Answer : A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therap
Description : years old male diagnosis as case of gastric ulcer , culture -ve h.pylori pathology –ve of cancer ttt: proton pumb inhibitor antihistamine after 6-8 wk do endoscope after therapy referral to surgery
Last Answer : proton pumb inhibitor
Description : A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long
Last Answer : B. 6-12 months
Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month
Last Answer : C. 6 months
Description : A fixed dose combination preparation meant for internal use must not contain the following class of drug: A. Thiazide diuretic B. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobial C. Corticosteroid D. H2 blocker
Last Answer : C. Corticosteroid
Description : What is the usual healing time with a wrist fracture?
Last Answer : It depends on many factors, but recovery usually takes a few months, however, it is not uncommon for it to take several months.
Description : Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms
Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet
Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule
Description : The following calcium channel blocker is specifically indicated to counteract cerebral vasospasm and neurological sequelae following subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Lacidipine B. Nimodipine C. Nicardipine D. Nitrendipine
Last Answer : B. Nimodipine
Description : The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract
Last Answer : A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker
Description : The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine
Last Answer : A. Calcium channel blocker
Description : The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)
Last Answer : DD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)
Description : ostoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker: A. d-tubocurarine B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium
Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine
Description : Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release
Last Answer : B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker
Description : The neuromuscular blocker that does not need reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the operation is: A. d-Tubocurarine B. Doxacurium C. Pipecuronium D. Mivacurium
Last Answer : D. Mivacurium
Description : Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release
Last Answer : C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection
Description : CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 23.1 Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker: A. Succinylcholine B. Vecuronium C. Decamethonium D. Dantrolene sodium
Last Answer : B. Vecuronium
Description : Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. It has additional α1 blocking property
Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy
Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release
Description : Vasomotor reversal phenomenon after administration of an α adrenergic blocker is seen with: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. All of the above drugs
Last Answer : A. Adrenaline
Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming
Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma
Description : The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine
Last Answer : C. Flunarizine