The neuromuscular blocker that does not need reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the operation is: A. d-Tubocurarine B. Doxacurium C. Pipecuronium D. Mivacurium

The neuromuscular blocker that does not need
reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the
operation is:
A. d-Tubocurarine
B. Doxacurium
C. Pipecuronium
D. Mivacurium
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Mivacurium
by

Related questions

Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Description : Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Last Answer : C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection

Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release

Description : Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release

Last Answer : B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

ostoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker: A. d-tubocurarine B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium

Description : ostoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker: A. d-tubocurarine B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium

Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine

The most rapidly acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent which can be used as an alternative to succinylcholine for tracheal intubation is: A. Rocuronium B. Pancuronium C. Doxacurium D. Pipecuronium

Description : The most rapidly acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent which can be used as an alternative to succinylcholine for tracheal intubation is: A. Rocuronium B. Pancuronium C. Doxacurium D. Pipecuronium

Last Answer : A. Rocuronium

Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis

Description : Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis

Last Answer : C. Histamine release

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 23.1 Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker: A. Succinylcholine B. Vecuronium C. Decamethonium D. Dantrolene sodium

Description : CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 23.1 Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker: A. Succinylcholine B. Vecuronium C. Decamethonium D. Dantrolene sodium

Last Answer : B. Vecuronium

Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug (A) Atropine (B) Carvedilol (C) Neostigmine ( D ) d-Tubocurarine

Description : Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug (A) Atropine (B) Carvedilol (C) Neostigmine ( D ) d-Tubocurarine

Last Answer : ( D ) d-Tubocurarine

Vasomotor reversal phenomenon after administration of an α adrenergic blocker is seen with: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. All of the above drugs

Description : Vasomotor reversal phenomenon after administration of an α adrenergic blocker is seen with: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. All of the above drugs

Last Answer : A. Adrenaline

Vasomotor reversal phenomenon after administration of an α adrenergic blocker is seen with: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. All of the above drugs

Description : Vasomotor reversal phenomenon after administration of an α adrenergic blocker is seen with: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. All of the above drugs

Last Answer : A. Adrenaline

The site of action of d-tubocurarine is: A. Spinal internuncial neurone B. Motor nerve ending C. Muscle end-plate D. Sodium channels in the muscle fibre

Description : The site of action of d-tubocurarine is: A. Spinal internuncial neurone B. Motor nerve ending C. Muscle end-plate D. Sodium channels in the muscle fibre

Last Answer : C. Muscle end-plate

The following are true about acetylcholine receptors: a. receptors at all autonomic ganglia are nicotinic b. receptors at the skeletal neuromuscular junction are muscarinic c. acetylcholine receptors in the autonomic ganglia can be selectively blocked by atropine d. acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction can be selectively blocked by tubocurarine

Description : The following are true about acetylcholine receptors: a. receptors at all autonomic ganglia are nicotinic b. receptors at the skeletal neuromuscular junction are muscarinic c. ... atropine d. acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction can be selectively blocked by tubocurarine

Last Answer : acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction can be selectively blocked by tubocurarine

At the muscle end-plate, d-tubocurarine reduces the: A. Number of Na+ channels B. Duration for which the Na+ channels remain open C. Ion conductance of the open Na+ channel D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

Description : At the muscle end-plate, d-tubocurarine reduces the: A. Number of Na+ channels B. Duration for which the Na+ channels remain open C. Ion conductance of the open Na+ channel D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

Last Answer : D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

The fall in blood pressure caused by d-tubocurarine is due to: A. Reduced venous return B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. All of the above

Description : The fall in blood pressure caused by d-tubocurarine is due to: A. Reduced venous return B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia

Neuromuscular blocking drugs do not produce central actions because: A. They do not cross the blood-brain barrier B. Nicotinic receptors are not present in the brain C. They are sequestrated in the periphery by tight binding to the skeletal muscles D. They do not ionise at the brain pH

Description : Neuromuscular blocking drugs do not produce central actions because: A. They do not cross the blood-brain barrier B. Nicotinic receptors are not present in the brain C. They are sequestrated in the periphery by tight binding to the skeletal muscles D. They do not ionise at the brain pH

Last Answer : A. They do not cross the blood-brain barrier

Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Description : Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Last Answer : D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Description : Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Last Answer : D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Description : The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Last Answer : B. Physostigmine

The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Description : The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Last Answer : B. Physostigmine

Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Description : Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Last Answer : C. Clofazimine

Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Description : Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Last Answer : C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate

Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Description : Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Last Answer : C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate

The preferred regimen for preventing duodenal ulcer relapse is: A. Maintenance antacid regimen B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen C. On demand intermittent H2 blocker regimen D. Maintenance sucralfate regimen

Description : The preferred regimen for preventing duodenal ulcer relapse is: A. Maintenance antacid regimen B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen C. On demand intermittent H2 blocker regimen D. Maintenance sucralfate regimen

Last Answer : B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen

Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine

Description : Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine

Last Answer : A. Cimetidine

For healing duodenal ulcer the usual duration of H2 blocker therapy is: A. 4 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 12 weeks

Description : For healing duodenal ulcer the usual duration of H2 blocker therapy is: A. 4 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 12 weeks

Last Answer : C. 8 weeks

Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms

The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule

The following calcium channel blocker is specifically indicated to counteract cerebral vasospasm and neurological sequelae following subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Lacidipine B. Nimodipine C. Nicardipine D. Nitrendipine

Description : The following calcium channel blocker is specifically indicated to counteract cerebral vasospasm and neurological sequelae following subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Lacidipine B. Nimodipine C. Nicardipine D. Nitrendipine

Last Answer : B. Nimodipine

The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

Description : The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

Last Answer : A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker

The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above

Description : The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored

The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Description : The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Last Answer : A. Calcium channel blocker

The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Description : The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Last Answer : DD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Description : Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has additional α1 blocking property

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma

The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine

Description : The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine

Last Answer : C. Flunarizine

Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Description : Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has additional α1 blocking property

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is: A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotoxine D. Tolazoline

Description : The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is: A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotoxine D. Tolazoline

Last Answer : B. Ergotamine

Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma

Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation because: A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Description : Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation because: A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Last Answer : D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Description : Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Last Answer : B. It is longer acting

Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation because: A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Description : Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation because: A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Last Answer : D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Description : Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Last Answer : B. It is longer acting

The action potential of a neuron a. is initiated by efflux of Na+ b. is terminated by efflux of K+ c. declines in amplitude as it moves along the axon d. results in a transient reversal of the concentration gradient of Na+ across the cell membrane e. is not associated with any net movement of Na+ or K+ across the cell membrane

Description : The action potential of a neuron a. is initiated by efflux of Na+ b. is terminated by efflux of K+ c. declines in amplitude as it moves along the axon d. results in a transient reversal of the ... the cell membrane e. is not associated with any net movement of Na+ or K+ across the cell membrane

Last Answer : is terminated by efflux of K+

The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of acetylcholine released from motor nerve endings to a wider area activating neighbouring receptors C. Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above

Description : The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of ... Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of acetylcholine released from motor nerve endings to a wider area activating neighbouring receptors C. Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above

Description : The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of ... Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

which of the following activities best describes proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation? -General Knowledge

Description : which of the following activities best describes proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation? -General Knowledge

Last Answer : B. The stretch involves using a partner to apply force against your contraction.

Which toxic effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics is most irreversible in nature ? (a) Vestibular damage (b) Hearing loss (c) Neuromuscular blockade (d) Kidney damage

Description : Which toxic effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics is most irreversible in nature ? (a) Vestibular damage (b) Hearing loss (c) Neuromuscular blockade (d) Kidney damage

Last Answer : Ans: B