Trimethoprim is combined with sulfamethoxazole in a ratio of 1:5 to yield a steady state plasma concentration ratio of: A. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 5 B. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 10 C. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20 D. Trimethoprim 5: Sulfamethoxazole 1

Trimethoprim is combined with sulfamethoxazole in a
ratio of 1:5 to yield a steady state plasma concentration ratio of:
A. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 5
B. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 10
C. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20
D. Trimethoprim 5: Sulfamethoxazole 1
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20
by

Related questions

Indicate the condition in which neither trimethoprim nor sulfamethoxazole alone are effective, but their combination cotrimoxazole is: A. Prostatitis B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D. Bacillary dysentery

Description : Indicate the condition in which neither trimethoprim nor sulfamethoxazole alone are effective, but their combination cotrimoxazole is: A. Prostatitis B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D. Bacillary dysentery

Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

Select the drug combination which does not exhibit supraadditive synergism: A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin B. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim

Description : Select the drug combination which does not exhibit supraadditive synergism: A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin B. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim

Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin

Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are examples of synthesis. a. Sulfonamides; PABA b. Penicillins; Cell Wall c. Sulfonamides; Folic Acid d. Macrolides; Protein

Description : Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are examples of synthesis. a. Sulfonamides; PABA b. Penicillins; Cell Wall c. Sulfonamides; Folic Acid d. Macrolides; Protein

Last Answer : c. Sulfonamides; Folic Acid

If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is: A. 0.5 L/hr B. 2.0 L/hr C. 5.0 L/hr D. 20 L/hr

Description : The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Last Answer : B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature

Select the sulfonamide drug which is active against Pseudomonas and is used by topical application for prophylaxis of infection in burn cases: A. Sulfadiazine B. Silver sulfadiazine C. Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole

Description : Select the sulfonamide drug which is active against Pseudomonas and is used by topical application for prophylaxis of infection in burn cases: A. Sulfadiazine B. Silver sulfadiazine C. Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole

Last Answer : B. Silver sulfadiazine

Trimethoprim inhibits bacteria without affecting mammalian cells because: A. It does not penetrate mammalian cells B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate reductase enzyme C. It inhibits bacterial folate synthetase as well as dihydrofolate reductase enzymes D. All of the above

Description : Trimethoprim inhibits bacteria without affecting mammalian cells because: A. It does not penetrate mammalian cells B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate ... bacterial folate synthetase as well as dihydrofolate reductase enzymes D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate reductase enzyme

Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic: A. Triamterene B. Trimethoprim C. Tizanidine D. Trimetazidine

Description : Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic: A. Triamterene B. Trimethoprim C. Tizanidine D. Trimetazidine

Last Answer : A. Triamterene

If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is: A. 0.5 L/hr B. 2.0 L/hr C. 5.0 L/hr D. 20 L/hr

Description : If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is: A. 0.5 L/hr B. 2.0 L/hr C. 5.0 L/hr D. 20 L/hr

Last Answer : B. 2.0 L/hr

For therapeutic effect in manic depressive illness, steady-state serum lithium concentration should be maintained between: A. 0.2–0.4 mEq/L B. 0.5–0.8 mEq/L C. 1.0–1.3 mEq/L D. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L

Description : For therapeutic effect in manic depressive illness, steady-state serum lithium concentration should be maintained between: A. 0.2–0.4 mEq/L B. 0.5–0.8 mEq/L C. 1.0–1.3 mEq/L D. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L

Last Answer : B. 0.5–0.8 mEq/L

When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Description : When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Last Answer : B. 4–5 half lives

When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Description : When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Last Answer : B. 4–5 half lives

What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

Description : Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

Last Answer : B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria

The following anti-HIV drug should not be combined with zidovudine because of mutual antagonism: A. Stavudine B. Lamivudine C. Nevirapine D. Ritonavir

Description : The following anti-HIV drug should not be combined with zidovudine because of mutual antagonism: A. Stavudine B. Lamivudine C. Nevirapine D. Ritonavir

Last Answer : A. Stavudine

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive to the latter C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Description : The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive ... β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases

Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Description : Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Last Answer : D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Description : Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Last Answer : B. Prosthetic heart valves

Megaloblastic anaemia occurs in: A. Vitamin B12 but not folic acid deficiency B. Folic acid but not Vitamin B12 deficiency C. Either Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency D. Only combined Vitamin B12 + folic acid deficiency

Description : Megaloblastic anaemia occurs in: A. Vitamin B12 but not folic acid deficiency B. Folic acid but not Vitamin B12 deficiency C. Either Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency D. Only combined Vitamin B12 + folic acid deficiency

Last Answer : C. Either Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency

Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Description : Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Last Answer : B. Amiloride

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar pattern of haemodynamic action are superior to those with dissimilar pattern C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Description : Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar ... should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Last Answer : C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined

The following statement about lithium is not correct: A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals B. It controls mania, but takes 1–2 weeks to produce the effect C. It has prophylactic effect in recurrent unipolar depression D. It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression

Description : The following statement about lithium is not correct: A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals B. It controls mania, but takes 1-2 weeks to produce the effect C. ... recurrent unipolar depression D. It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression

Last Answer : A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals

The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the ‘on-off ’ effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian patients C. It retards the progression of Parkinson's disease D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Description : The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the on-off ' effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian ... D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Last Answer : . At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

The following contraceptive acts primarily by interfering with implantation of blastocyst: A. Gossypol B. Centchroman C. Combined estrogen-progestin pill D. Phased pill

Description : The following contraceptive acts primarily by interfering with implantation of blastocyst: A. Gossypol B. Centchroman C. Combined estrogen-progestin pill D. Phased pill

Last Answer : B. Centchroman

On stoppage of the combined estrogen-progestin contraceptive pill, fertility returns after: A. 1–2 months B. 4–6 months C. 6–12 months D. Uncertain period

Description : On stoppage of the combined estrogen-progestin contraceptive pill, fertility returns after: A. 1–2 months B. 4–6 months C. 6–12 months D. Uncertain period

Last Answer : A. 1–2 months

Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

Description : Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

Last Answer : . Lower risk of myocardial infarction

Which of the following is advised when a woman on combined oral contraceptive pill misses a dose: A. Continue with the course without regard to the missed dose B. Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the course C. Take 2 pills everyday for the remaining part of the course D. Discontinue the course and use alternative method of contraception

Description : Which of the following is advised when a woman on combined oral contraceptive pill misses a dose: A. Continue with the course without regard to the missed dose B. Take 2 pills the next ... for the remaining part of the course D. Discontinue the course and use alternative method of contraception

Last Answer : Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the course

The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and LH release C. Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Description : The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and ... Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Last Answer : B. Suppression of FSH and LH release

A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Description : A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Last Answer : C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation

In which of the following forms of oral contraception, pills are taken continuously without interruption: A. Combined pill B. Phased pill C. Minipill D. Both 'B' and 'C

Description : In which of the following forms of oral contraception, pills are taken continuously without interruption: A. Combined pill B. Phased pill C. Minipill D. Both 'B' and 'C

Last Answer : C. Minipill

The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Description : The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own

The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Description : The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The most popular form of hormonal contraception is: A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill B. Phased estrogen + progestin oral pill C. Postcoital estrogen + progestin pill D. Depot progestin injection

Description : The most popular form of hormonal contraception is: A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill B. Phased estrogen + progestin oral pill C. Postcoital estrogen + progestin pill D. Depot progestin injection

Last Answer : A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill

Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate when combined with a GnRH agonist: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Danazol C. Finasteride D. Flutamid

Description : Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate when combined with a GnRH agonist: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Danazol C. Finasteride D. Flutamid

Last Answer : D. Flutamide

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are more effective in migraine: A. Without aura B. With aura C. Than ergotamine D. When combined with propranolol

Description : The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are more effective in migraine: A. Without aura B. With aura C. Than ergotamine D. When combined with propranolol

Last Answer : A. Without aura

If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Description : If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Last Answer : B. × 2

If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Description : If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Last Answer : B. × 2

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning antimicrobial classes? a. Penicillins and cephalosporins share the compound structure of a b-lactam ring which binds to bacterial division plate proteins b. Tetracyclines and macrolides such as erythromycin inhibit bacterial ribosomal activity and therefore protein synthesis c. Aminoglycosides act in a similar fashion to tetracyclines and therefore are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Description : Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following ... are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Penicillins, cephalosporins, and monobactams possess a b-lactam ring of some type and act to bind bacterial division plate proteins, thus inhibiting cell wall ... act in different mechanisms to inhibit protein synthesis, therefore two agents in combination act synergistically

All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate

Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents may affect the growth of Campylobacter jejuni? A- .Vacomycin B- Polymyxin C- Trimethoprim D- None of these

Description : Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents may affect the growth of Campylobacter jejuni? A- .Vacomycin B- Polymyxin C- Trimethoprim D- None of these

Last Answer : None of these

Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents may affect the growth of Campylobacterjejuni? A- VacomycinB- Polymyxin C- Trimethoprim D- .None of these

Description : Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents may affect the growth of Campylobacterjejuni? A- Vacomycin B- Polymyxin C- Trimethoprim D- .None of these

Last Answer : .None of these

17.5 Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar level

Description : 17.5 Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar level

Last Answer : D. Rise in blood sugar level

Plasma is (A) A high temperature neutral gas (B) Nothing but ionised gas (C) A source of steady and highest controllable pressure (D) Formed at very low temperature

Description : Plasma is (A) A high temperature neutral gas (B) Nothing but ionised gas (C) A source of steady and highest controllable pressure (D) Formed at very low temperature

Last Answer : (B) Nothing but ionised gas

Roxithromycin has the following advantage(s) over erythromycin: A. It is more effective in whooping cough B. It causes less gastric irritation C. It has longer plasma half-life D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantage(s) over erythromycin: A. It is more effective in whooping cough B. It causes less gastric irritation C. It has longer plasma half-life D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Description : Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Last Answer : D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis