Description : The following diuretic acts on the luminal membrane of distal tubule and collecting ducts to inhibit electrogenic Na+ reabsorption so that K+ excretion is diminished and bicarbonate excretion is enhanced: A. Xipamide B. Isosorbide C. Triamterene D. Spironolactone
Last Answer : C. Triamterene
Description : Triamterene differs from spironolactone in that: A. It has greater natriuretic action B. Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on presence of aldosterone C. It acts from the luminal membrane side of the distal tubular cells D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic inhibits action of aldosterone (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above
Description : Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms
Description : Select the drug that may improve myocardial tolerance to ischaemia and reduce anginal attacks without altering heart rate, blood pressure or myocardial O2 consumption: A. Trimetazidine B. Nicorandil C. Dipyridamole D. Nicotinic acid
Last Answer : A. Trimetazidine
Description : The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation
Last Answer : B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic
Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The following is a skeletal muscle relaxant that acts as a central α2 adrenergic agonist: A. Tizanidine B. Brimonidine C. Chlormezanone D. Quinine
Last Answer : A. Tizanidine
Description : Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene
Last Answer : B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus
Description : Indicate the condition in which neither trimethoprim nor sulfamethoxazole alone are effective, but their combination cotrimoxazole is: A. Prostatitis B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D. Bacillary dysentery
Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Description : Trimethoprim is combined with sulfamethoxazole in a ratio of 1:5 to yield a steady state plasma concentration ratio of: A. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 5 B. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 10 C. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20 D. Trimethoprim 5: Sulfamethoxazole 1
Last Answer : C. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20
Description : Trimethoprim inhibits bacteria without affecting mammalian cells because: A. It does not penetrate mammalian cells B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate ... bacterial folate synthetase as well as dihydrofolate reductase enzymes D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate reductase enzyme
Description : Select the drug combination which does not exhibit supraadditive synergism: A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin B. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim
Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin
Description : Select the diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbance as a side effect on long-term use: A. Amiloride B. Spironolactone C. Metolazone D. Acetazolamide
Last Answer : B. Spironolactone
Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly
Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily
Description : The following is not itself an efficacious diuretic, and is used only as an adjuvant/corrective to other diuretics: A. Acetazolamide B. Metolazone C. Spironolactone D. Indapamide
Last Answer : C. Spironolactone
Description : Which of the following has a ‘self limiting diuretic’ (action of the drug itself causing changes which limit further diuresis) action: A. Indapamide B. Spironolactone C. Xipamide D. Acetazolamide
Last Answer : D. Acetazolamide
Description : At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride
Last Answer : C. Acetazolamide
Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop ... C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion
Last Answer : A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions
Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia
Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency
Description : The following diuretic reduces positive free water clearance but does not affect negative free water clearance: A. Hydroflumethiazide B. Furosemide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Mannitol
Last Answer : A. Hydroflumethiazide
Description : Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic, it is practically not used because: A. It is more ototoxic B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow dose range D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Select the diuretic which is similar in efficacy and pattern of electrolyte excretion to furosemide, but is 40 times more potent dose to dose: A. Piretanide B. Bumetanide C. Xipamide D. Metolazone
Last Answer : B. Bumetanide
Description : Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema
Last Answer : C. Cerebral edema
Description : The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone
Last Answer : B. Furosemide
Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide
Last Answer : D. Furosemide
Description : Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar ... should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined
Last Answer : C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined
Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class
Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately
Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction
Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy
Description : The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride
Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic
Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor
Description : Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure in: A. Diuretic treated patients B. Patients having low plasma renin activity C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals D. Untreated CHF patient
Last Answer : A. Diuretic treated patients
Description : Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive
Last Answer : C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma
Description : The Na+ retaining action of aldosterone is exerted on the: A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Distal convoluted tubul
Last Answer : D. Distal convoluted tubule
Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A 75 year old man presents with a long history of shortness of breath and ankle oedema. His serum biochemistry shows sodium 122 mmols/l and potassium of 2.9 mmols/l. He now complains of ... ? 1) Addison's Disease 2) Nephrotic syndrome 3) Primary hyperaldosteronism 4) SIADH 5) Diuretic therapy
Last Answer : Answers-5 The long history of his symptoms and serum biochemistry suggests that his condition is due to treatment with frusemide for CCF.
Description : Of the following diuretic medications, which conserves potassium? a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic. b) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix causes loss of ... (Diuril) Diuril causes mild hypokalemia. d) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) Hygroton causes mild hypokalemia.
Last Answer : a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.
Description : Can you take NyQuil and tizanidine?
Last Answer : What is the answer ?
Description : Following drugs act on imidazoline receptor (a) Moxonidine (b) Dexmedetomidine (c) Tizanidine (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following ... are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Penicillins, cephalosporins, and monobactams possess a b-lactam ring of some type and act to bind bacterial division plate proteins, thus inhibiting cell wall ... act in different mechanisms to inhibit protein synthesis, therefore two agents in combination act synergistically
Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are examples of synthesis. a. Sulfonamides; PABA b. Penicillins; Cell Wall c. Sulfonamides; Folic Acid d. Macrolides; Protein
Last Answer : c. Sulfonamides; Folic Acid
Description : Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents may affect the growth of Campylobacter jejuni? A- .Vacomycin B- Polymyxin C- Trimethoprim D- None of these
Last Answer : None of these
Description : Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents may affect the growth of Campylobacterjejuni? A- Vacomycin B- Polymyxin C- Trimethoprim D- .None of these
Last Answer : .None of these
Description : The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is: A. Benzathine penicillin B. Sodium penicillin C. Potassium penicillin D. Procaine penicillin
Last Answer : A. Benzathine penicillin
Description : Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami
Last Answer : C. Captopril
Description : n addition to counteracting potassium loss, triamterene also opposes the following consequence of thiazide/furosemide therapy: A. Hyperuricaemia B. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol C. Magnesium loss D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : C. Magnesium loss
Description : Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor: A. Diazoxide B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Minoxidil D. Nicorandil
Last Answer : D. Nicorandil
Description : Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener: A. Nicorandil B. Hydralazine C. Glibenclamide D. Amiloride
Last Answer : D. Amiloride