Currently, monotherapy with zidovudine is recommended for: A. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count more than 200/μl B. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl C. HIV positive subjects with opportunistic infection D. None of the above

Currently, monotherapy with zidovudine is recommended for:
A. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with
CD4 cell count more than 200/μl
B. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with
CD4 cell count less than 200/μl
C. HIV positive subjects with opportunistic
infection
D. None of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. None of the above
by

Related questions

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

Description : More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic. b) ... CDC category C - AIDS Less than 200 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category C - AIDS.

Last Answer : a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on three factors: the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and ... CD4+ T cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 55,000 copies/mL (RT-PCR assay).

Last Answer : a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of ... : the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS. a. 1,000; stage II b. 700; stage I c. 400; stage III d. 400; stage IV

Description : An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS. a. 1,000; stage II b. 700; stage I c. 400; stage III d. 400; stage IV

Last Answer : a. 1,000; stage II

According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Description : According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Last Answer : D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibitor

The following anti-HIV drug should not be combined with zidovudine because of mutual antagonism: A. Stavudine B. Lamivudine C. Nevirapine D. Ritonavir

Description : The following anti-HIV drug should not be combined with zidovudine because of mutual antagonism: A. Stavudine B. Lamivudine C. Nevirapine D. Ritonavir

Last Answer : A. Stavudine

Currently, monotherapy of leprosy with dapsone is recommended for: A. Paucibacillary leprosy only B. Multibacillary leprosy only C. Both paucibacillary and multibacillary leprosy D. Neither paucibacillary nor multibacillary leprosy

Description : Currently, monotherapy of leprosy with dapsone is recommended for: A. Paucibacillary leprosy only B. Multibacillary leprosy only C. Both paucibacillary and multibacillary leprosy D. Neither paucibacillary nor multibacillary leprosy

Last Answer : D. Neither paucibacillary nor multibacillary leprosy

Assertion : HIV infected person are prone to opportunistic diseases. Reason : Immune system weakens during HIV infection.

Description : Assertion : HIV infected person are prone to opportunistic diseases. Reason : Immune system weakens during HIV infection.

Last Answer : Assertion : HIV infected person are prone to opportunistic diseases. Reason : Immune system weakens ... If both the assertion and reason are false

Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Description : Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and ... for the overall treatment of HIV disease; it is not specific for treatment of skin conditions.

Last Answer : a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active ... conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patients C. Adult contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

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Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

In regard to HIV infection, which of the following is the earliest finding? A. Kaposi sarcoma on the palate B. Reduced haemoglobin C. Infection with pneumocystic carinii D. Reduction in white cells count E. B cell lymphoma

Description : In regard to HIV infection, which of the following is the earliest finding? A. Kaposi sarcoma on the palate B. Reduced haemoglobin C. Infection with pneumocystic carinii D. Reduction in white cells count E. B cell lymphoma

Last Answer : D. Reduction in white cells count

Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any single effective drug in case of the following diseases except: A. Typhoid fever B. Leprosy C. AIDS D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Description : Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any single effective drug in case of the following diseases except: A. Typhoid fever B. Leprosy C. AIDS D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Last Answer : A. Typhoid fever

A combination of two or more antiepileptic drugs is used: A. Routinely in all types of epilepsy B. In all cases of complex partial seizures C. In all cases of secondarily generalized seizures D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Description : A combination of two or more antiepileptic drugs is used: A. Routinely in all types of epilepsy B. In all cases of complex partial seizures C. In all cases of secondarily generalized seizures D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Last Answer : D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary and multibacillary cases C. No resistance to rifampin develops despite its use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Description : The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary ... use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Last Answer : A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases

Lugol’s iodine is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As long term definitive monotherapy B. Preoperatively for 10-15 days C. Postoperatively for 10-15 days D. As adjuvant to carbimazole for long term therap

Description : Lugol’s iodine is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As long term definitive monotherapy B. Preoperatively for 10-15 days C. Postoperatively for 10-15 days D. As adjuvant to carbimazole for long term therap

Last Answer : B. Preoperatively for 10-15 days

Leukotriene antagonists are used in bronchial asthma: A. For terminating acute attacks B. As monotherapy in place of β2 agonists C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids D. As nebulized powder in refractory cases

Description : Leukotriene antagonists are used in bronchial asthma: A. For terminating acute attacks B. As monotherapy in place of β2 agonists C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids D. As nebulized powder in refractory cases

Last Answer : C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids

Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus? (A) Lamivudine (B) Zidovudine (C) Indinavir (D) Ribavirin

Description : Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus? (A) Lamivudine (B) Zidovudine (C) Indinavir (D) Ribavirin

Last Answer : (B) Zidovudine

What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients

fected biological sample. Antiretroviral treatment will achieve the following in him: A. Reduce the risk of contracting HIV infection B. Rule out the possibility of contracting HIV infection C. Prevent appearance of HIV seropositivity but not HIV infection in him D. None of the above

Description : fected biological sample. Antiretroviral treatment will achieve the following in him: A. Reduce the risk of contracting HIV infection B. Rule out the possibility of contracting HIV infection C. Prevent appearance of HIV seropositivity but not HIV infection in him D. None of the above

Last Answer : A. Reduce the risk of contracting HIV infection

Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir

Description : Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir

Last Answer : B. Foscarnet

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Description : An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Last Answer : B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously

Zidovudine inhibits the following virus/viruses: A. Human immunodeficiency virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis B virus D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Description : Zidovudine inhibits the following virus/viruses: A. Human immunodeficiency virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis B virus D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Last Answer : A. Human immunodeficiency virus

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for both antigen and antibody detection b. Southern, northern, and western immunoblot techniques are used to detect DNA, RNA, or proteins, respectively c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a sensitive assay used to detect small amounts of microbial DNA, thus detecting infection at its early stages d. Infectious agents currently detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for ... detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Although the classic detection of infection based on clinical signs of infection and bacterial culture remain the most common clinical tools, increasing ... including CMV and HIV. Furthermore, preliminary investigations into possible detection of fungal pathogens are underway

Choose the most effective drug for mild intestinal amoebiasis and asymptomatic cyst passers: A. Metronidazole B. Emetine C. Quiniodochlor D. Diloxanide furoate

Description : Choose the most effective drug for mild intestinal amoebiasis and asymptomatic cyst passers: A. Metronidazole B. Emetine C. Quiniodochlor D. Diloxanide furoate

Last Answer : D. Diloxanide furoate

Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ACE inhibitors ± digitalis/ diuretic C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy

What is an opportunistic infection? -Biology

Description : What is an opportunistic infection? -Biology

Last Answer : answer:

Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first choice antibiotic for any specific infection C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Description : Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first ... of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Last Answer : C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera

Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available hematocrit or hemoglobin determination. B. Symptomatic anemia: orthostatic hypotension, severe tachycardia (greater than 120 beats per minute), evidence of myocardial ischemia, including angina. C. To increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Description : Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available ... increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Currently accepted guidelines for the transfusion of packed red blood cells include acute ongoing blood loss, as might occur in an injured patient, and the development of ... not be given based solely or predominantly on a numerical value such as a hematocrit of 28%

Which of the following is correct for CD8 T cells? A- CD8 T cells only recognize virus-infected cells B- CD8 T cell receptor recognizes epitopes that are also commonly recognized by B cells C- In the thymus, CD8 T cells undergo positive selection only, whereas CD4 T cells undergo negative selection only D- CD8 T cells can kill individual virus-infected cells in a contact dependent fashion

Description : Which of the following is correct for CD8 T cells? A- CD8 T cells only recognize virus-infected cells B- CD8 T cell receptor recognizes epitopes that are also commonly recognized by B cells ... selection only D- CD8 T cells can kill individual virus-infected cells in a contact dependent fashion

Last Answer : CD8 T cells can kill individual virus-infected cells in a contact dependent fashion

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. ... , carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a syndrome caused by the human retrovirus (HIV-1) that infects T lymphocytes and causes severe immunosuppression. Individuals who ... to prolong survival when administered early in the course of disease and is considered routine therapy

The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Description : The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Last Answer : A. Are more potent

Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI C. Fluid restriction is recommended so that the antimicrobial drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI

Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin that is highly resistant to gram negative β-lactamases, and cures penicillinase positive as well as negative gonococcal infection by a single intramuscular dose: A. Cephalexin B. Cefuroxime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftazidime

Description : Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin that is highly resistant to gram negative β-lactamases, and cures penicillinase positive as well as negative gonococcal infection by a single intramuscular dose: A. Cephalexin B. Cefuroxime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftazidime

Last Answer : B. Cefuroxime

Choose the correct statement about amantadine: A. It is an antimetabolite used for viral infections B. It prevents penetration of the virus into the host cell C. It is used to protect high risk subjects during an influenza A2 epidemic D. Concurrent administration of amantadine prevents antibody response to influenza vaccine

Description : Choose the correct statement about amantadine: A. It is an antimetabolite used for viral infections B. It prevents penetration of the virus into the host cell C. It is used ... during an influenza A2 epidemic D. Concurrent administration of amantadine prevents antibody response to influenza vaccine

Last Answer : C. It is used to protect high risk subjects during an influenza A2 epidemic

Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for blood administration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the transmission of infectious disease during blood transfusions? a. Post-transfusion hepatitis is usually due to hepatitis B b. Hepatitis and HIV transmission is greatest with the administration of pooled plasma products such as serum albumin c. The most important cause of post-transfusion disease in immunosuppressed patients is CMV infection d. The risk of HIV transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Description : Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for ... transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The most common infectious diseases transmitted during blood transfusions include viral hepatitis, CMV, and HIV infection. Post-transfusion hepatitis in 90% of cases consists of ... infectious disease transmission, the risks of HIV transmission is markedly less than that of hepatitis

Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. Two years or more till disease inactivity is attained D. One year for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more

Description : Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. ... for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more

Last Answer : B. One year fixed duration for all cases

The vessel dispersion number (D/μL) for plug flow is (A) 0 (B) 500 (C) 750 (D) ∞

Description : The vessel dispersion number (D/μL) for plug flow is (A) 0 (B) 500 (C) 750 (D) ∞

Last Answer : (A) 0

A 53-year-old man presented with hypertension of 150/110 mmHg. He is generally asymptomatic and has no previous medical history of note. He is a smoker of 5 cigarettes daily and drinks modest quantities of alcohol. He takes no prescribed medications. Examination reveals a BMI of 33.5 kg/2 but nil else. The following detail his investigations: Serum sodium 146 mmol/l (NR 133-145) Serum potassium 3.2 mmol/l (NR 3.5 - 5) Urinary potassium excretion 42 mmol/l (NR less than 30) What is the likely diagnosis? 1) Adrenocortical adenoma 2) Bartter's syndrome 3) Liddle's syndrome 4) Liquorice ingestion 5) Pheochromocytoma

Description : A 53-year-old man presented with hypertension of 150/110 mmHg. He is generally asymptomatic and has no previous medical history of note. He is a smoker of 5 cigarettes daily and drinks ... Adrenocortical adenoma 2) Bartter's syndrome 3) Liddle's syndrome 4) Liquorice ingestion 5) Pheochromocytoma

Last Answer : Answers-1 This patient is most likely to have Conn's syndrome as reflected by the hypokalaemic hypertension. Liquorice ingestion or Liddle's syndrome are again possible causes of ... hypertension (often diastolic hypertension), muscular weakness, paresthesias, headache, polyuria, and polydipsia."

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Description : Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Chemoprophylaxis of malaria is recommended for the following category of subjects: A. Residents of nonendemic areas B. Residents of endemic areas C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic areas D. Travellers from endemic to nonendemic areas

Description : Chemoprophylaxis of malaria is recommended for the following category of subjects: A. Residents of nonendemic areas B. Residents of endemic areas C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic areas D. Travellers from endemic to nonendemic areas

Last Answer : C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic areas

Specific drug therapy to lower serum triglycerides (TG) in a subject with normal LDL-cholesterol level is indicated: A. In all subjects with serum TG> 150 mg/dl B. In subjects with existing coronary artery disease and serum TG > 150 mg/dl C. In subjects with HDL-cholesterol < 40 mg/dl and serum TG > 150 mg/dl D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Specific drug therapy to lower serum triglycerides (TG) in a subject with normal LDL-cholesterol level is indicated: A. In all subjects with serum TG> 150 mg/dl B. In subjects with existing coronary artery disease and serum TG ... < 40 mg/dl and serum TG > 150 mg/dl D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Description : Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Last Answer : B. Prosthetic heart valves

A drug which preferentially dilates autoregulatory coronary arterioles with little effect on large conducting vessels is likely to: A. Evoke coronary steal phenomenon B. Mitigate classical angina but not variant angina C. Decrease total coronary blood flow in healthy subjects D. Avert ECG changes of ischaemia

Description : A drug which preferentially dilates autoregulatory coronary arterioles with little effect on large conducting vessels is likely to: A. Evoke coronary steal phenomenon B. Mitigate classical angina but not ... . Decrease total coronary blood flow in healthy subjects D. Avert ECG changes of ischaemia

Last Answer : A. Evoke coronary steal phenomenon

The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia

Description : The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia

Last Answer : C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia