The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of
previously untreated HIV patient consist of:
A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI)
B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI
C. Three NRTIs
D. Any of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Any of the above
by

Related questions

ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Description : ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Last Answer : D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Description : According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Last Answer : D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibitor

Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation: A. Nelfinavir B. Nevirapine C. Stavudine D. Didanosine

Description : Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation: A. Nelfinavir B. Nevirapine C. Stavudine D. Didanosine

Last Answer : B. Nevirapine

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs C. They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Description : Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal ... . They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Last Answer : B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

fected biological sample. Antiretroviral treatment will achieve the following in him: A. Reduce the risk of contracting HIV infection B. Rule out the possibility of contracting HIV infection C. Prevent appearance of HIV seropositivity but not HIV infection in him D. None of the above

Description : fected biological sample. Antiretroviral treatment will achieve the following in him: A. Reduce the risk of contracting HIV infection B. Rule out the possibility of contracting HIV infection C. Prevent appearance of HIV seropositivity but not HIV infection in him D. None of the above

Last Answer : A. Reduce the risk of contracting HIV infection

Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Description : Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and ... for the overall treatment of HIV disease; it is not specific for treatment of skin conditions.

Last Answer : a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active ... conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Select the drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme: A. Zalcitabine B. Efavirenz C. Stavudine D. Nelfinavi

Description : Select the drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme: A. Zalcitabine B. Efavirenz C. Stavudine D. Nelfinavi

Last Answer : D. Nelfinavir

The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3 months B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Description : The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the ... 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Last Answer : B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs

Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV? (a) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase. (b) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase. (c) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus. (d) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

Description : Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV? (a) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase. (b) HIV ... ) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus. (d) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

Last Answer : (d) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response.

HIV often changes its shape due to the presence of an enzyme called (1) Reverse Transcriptase (2) Enterokinase (3) Nucleotidase (4) Nucleoditase

Description : HIV often changes its shape due to the presence of an enzyme called (1) Reverse Transcriptase (2) Enterokinase (3) Nucleotidase (4) Nucleoditase

Last Answer : (1) Reverse Transcriptase Explanation: Use of the reverse transcriptase enzyme is a unique characteristic of retroviruses such as HIV. After the virus releases its genetic material into a host cell, ... viral RNA into a complementary piece of DNA. This process is known as 'reverse transcription'.

At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS? (a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person (b) When the infected retro virus enters host cells (c) When HIV damages large number of helper T  - lymphocytes (d) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

Description : At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS? (a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person (b) When the infected retro virus enters host cells (c) ... large number of helper T  - lymphocytes (d) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

Last Answer : (c) When HIV damages large number of helper T  - lymphocytes

HIV often changes its shape due to the presence of an enzyme called (1) Reverse Transcriptase (2) Enterokinase (3) Nucleotidase (4) Nucleoditase

Description : HIV often changes its shape due to the presence of an enzyme called (1) Reverse Transcriptase (2) Enterokinase (3) Nucleotidase (4) Nucleoditase

Last Answer : Reverse Transcriptase

Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure in: A. Diuretic treated patients B. Patients having low plasma renin activity C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals D. Untreated CHF patient

Description : Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure in: A. Diuretic treated patients B. Patients having low plasma renin activity C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals D. Untreated CHF patient

Last Answer : A. Diuretic treated patients

In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course

Description : In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course

Last Answer : B. Initial two months

According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6 months B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2 months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone for 6 months C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Long term ACE inhibitor therapy may retard the progression of: A. Diabetic nephropathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Hypertensive nephropathy D. All of the above

Description : Long term ACE inhibitor therapy may retard the progression of: A. Diabetic nephropathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Hypertensive nephropathy D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. A fibric acid derivative C. Gugulipid D. Nicotinic acid

Description : Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. A fibric acid derivative C. Gugulipid D. Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low. Which of the following lines of action is warranted: A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor B. Continue all medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patients C. Adult contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Description : A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Last Answer : C. Three weeks

The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: A. Interaction with the viral M2 protein B. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase C. Inhibition of a viral protease enzyme D. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesi

Description : The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: A. Interaction with the viral M2 protein B. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase C. Inhibition of a viral protease enzyme D. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesi

Last Answer : A. Interaction with the viral M2 protein

he initial therapy in HIV patients is, A. Debridement and antimicrobial mouth rinses B. Root planing and surgical approach

Description : he initial therapy in HIV patients is, A. Debridement and antimicrobial mouth rinses B. Root planing and surgical approach

Last Answer : A. Debridement and antimicrobial mouth rinses

A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : C. Atenolol

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Description : Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Last Answer : C. Metronidazole

Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI C. Fluid restriction is recommended so that the antimicrobial drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI

The preferred regimen for preventing duodenal ulcer relapse is: A. Maintenance antacid regimen B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen C. On demand intermittent H2 blocker regimen D. Maintenance sucralfate regimen

Description : The preferred regimen for preventing duodenal ulcer relapse is: A. Maintenance antacid regimen B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen C. On demand intermittent H2 blocker regimen D. Maintenance sucralfate regimen

Last Answer : B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen

The regimen(s) used for postcoital emergency contraception is/are: A. Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinylestradiol 0.1 mg taken twice 12 hour apart B. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg taken twice 12 hour apart C. Mifepristone 600 mg single dose D. All of the abov

Description : The regimen(s) used for postcoital emergency contraception is/are: A. Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinylestradiol 0.1 mg taken twice 12 hour apart B. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg taken twice 12 hour apart C. Mifepristone 600 mg single dose D. All of the abov

Last Answer : D. All of the abov

The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Description : The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Last Answer : D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprosto

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting thrombolytic therapy: A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 16 hours D. 24 hours

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting thrombolytic therapy: A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 16 hours D. 24 hours

Last Answer : C. 16 hours

A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Description : A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Last Answer : A. Epoetin

A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while blood picture and haemoglobin level were improved. What could be the most likely explanation: A. Folic acid was not adequately absorbed resulting in partial response B. Folate therapy has precipitated vitamin B12 deficiency in the neural tissue C. Folate therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Description : A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while ... therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Last Answer : D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week

Description : A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week

Last Answer : C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week

The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

Description : The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

Last Answer : B. Anaemia during pregnancy

Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

Description : Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF

Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy C. Ventricular tachycardia in a child who has accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min ... accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy

Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Description : Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Last Answer : C. Herpes simplex keratitis