Description : The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at: a. 18,000ft b. 20,000ft c. 23,000ft d. 3,600ft
Last Answer : b. 20,000ft
Description : Critical zone of hypoxia begins at
Last Answer : 20,000 ft
Description : In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected? a. The warm air side of the core b. Exactly in the center of the core c. About 12,000ft above the core d. The cold air side of the core
Last Answer : d. The cold air side of the core
Description : Where is the 300mb level approximately in ISA? a. 30,000ft b. 39,000ft c. 18,000ft d. 10,000ft
Last Answer : a. 30,000ft
Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110
Last Answer : b. FL140
Description : When must a radiation indicator be carried? a. For flight above 29,000ft b. For flight above 39,000ft c. For flight above 49,000ft d. For flight above 59,000ft
Last Answer : c. For flight above 49,000ft
Description : Fuel is to be jettisoned: a. Over the sea and then only above 10,000ft b. Over the sea or over land above 10,000ft AGL c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter
Last Answer : c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency
Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed
Last Answer : b. Descend
Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below
Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain
Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible
Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt
Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt
Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft
Last Answer : b. 10,000ft
Description : At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft
Last Answer : d. 41,000ft
Description : You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the true altitude. a. 20,660 ft b. 21,740 ft c. 18,260 ft d. 19, 340 ft
Last Answer : d. 19, 340 ft
Description : Which of the following statement is an interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / ... towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260
Last Answer : c. Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and FL380
Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility
Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility
Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately
Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude
Description : What criteria determine which engine is the critical engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one ... the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment
Last Answer : b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage
Description : TAFs are usually valid for: a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself b. For 18 hours c. For 24 hours d. For 8 hours
Last Answer : a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself
Description : The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: a. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states b. Aeronautical standards adopted by all ... recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention
Last Answer : a. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states
Description : A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over: a. 20,000kg b. 5,700kg c. 10,000kg d. 7,000kg
Last Answer : b. 5,700kg
Description : What is the time of useful consciousness at 20,000 feet (moderate activity)? a. 5 minutes b. 1 minute c. 10 minutes d. 30 seconds
Last Answer : a. 5 minutes
Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min
Last Answer : c. 24 min
Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins
Last Answer : c. 30 mins
Description : The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY
Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”
Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery
Last Answer : a. Poor
Description : Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently on the same days of the following weeks and: a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of ... or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days d. For at least 20 occasions
Last Answer : c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days
Description : Given: True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110
Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment
Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll
Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same
Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper
Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1
Last Answer : b. 15:1
Description : What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true ... c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed
Last Answer : a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust
Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
Description : Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind
Last Answer : c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind
Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack
Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack
Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt
Last Answer : c. 99kt
Description : A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw
Last Answer : c. Augments stability
Description : If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase
Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered
Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude
Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power
Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach
Last Answer : b. increased
Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed
Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster
Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes
Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM
Description : The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps
Last Answer : c. The elevators
Description : To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio
Last Answer : d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio