What criteria determine which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage c. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment

What criteria determine which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin-engine aeroplane?  
a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage  b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage  c. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust  d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage
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Related questions

If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll

Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what and what should you do? a. Marked temperature drop; apply full power b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal c. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Description : Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal ... greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Last Answer : b. These forces are equal

At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm

Description : At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm

Last Answer : a. 3.5nm

Maximum Differential pressure: a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump c. Is the pressure loss over a given time limit d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

Description : Maximum Differential pressure: a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the ... time limit d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

Last Answer : a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure

A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Last Answer : c. Excess engine power

In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over loading of the structure d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent knowledge of the device on board getting to the passengers d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible

Description : If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent ... d. Locate and move the device to the least risk' location and apply as much padding as possible

Last Answer : d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible

A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from: a. Twin DME b. VOR/DME c. Twin VOR d. Any of the above

Description : A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from: a. Twin DME b. VOR/DME c. Twin VOR d. Any of the above

Last Answer : b. VOR/DME

The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Description : The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond ... is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Last Answer : c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range

How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA

Define the useful load: a. traffic load plus dry operating mass b. traffic load plus usable fuel mass c. dry operating mass plus usable fuel load d. that part of the traffic load which generates revenue

Description : Define the useful load: a. traffic load plus dry operating mass b. traffic load plus usable fuel mass c. dry operating mass plus usable fuel load d. that part of the traffic load which generates revenue

Last Answer : a. traffic load plus dry operating mass

At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Description : At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Last Answer : c. 30.3 USG/Hr

The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Description : The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Last Answer : b. Variations in aeroplane loading

Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

Description : Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

Last Answer : c. 5

From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used? a. Green b. Red c. White d. All of the above

Description : From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used? a. Green b. Red c. White d. All of the above

Last Answer : b. Red

An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Description : Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Last Answer : b. 2

A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency

The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce the approach angle to 1.5deg (150ft/mile), add 15kts to all speeds, keep the aeroplane clean (no flaps or gear) and fly it into the surface c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water

Description : The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce ... d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water

Last Answer : c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first

Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3

Description : Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3

Last Answer : b. 5

After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Last Answer : d. 60 days

The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach: a. 2400m b. 2500m c. 2600m d. 2700

Description : The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach: a. 2400m b. 2500m c. 2600m d. 2700

Last Answer : a. 2400m

What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

Description : What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same ... 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

Last Answer : c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days

Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Description : Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Last Answer : a. The Commander or the Operato

An aeroplane of 110,000kg has its CG at 22.6m aft of the datum. The CG limits are 18m to 22m aft of the datum. How much mass must be removed from a hold 30m aft of the datum to bring the CG to its mid point? a. 26,800 kg b. 28,600 kg c. 86,200 kg d. 62,800 kg

Description : An aeroplane of 110,000kg has its CG at 22.6m aft of the datum. The CG limits are 18m to 22m aft of the datum. How much mass must be removed from a hold 30m aft of the datum to bring the CG to its mid point? a. 26,800 kg b. 28,600 kg c. 86,200 kg d. 62,800 kg

Last Answer : b. 28,600 kg

A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom? a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry b. Immediately and to the Authority of the State of the airspace in which the event occurred c. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of Registration d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator

Description : After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom? a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry b. Immediately and to the Authority of ... d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator

Last Answer : d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator

The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground

Description : The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground

Last Answer : a. On the ground only

If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should: a. Try another appropriate frequency b. Start transmitting blind c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome d. Transmit words twice

Description : If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should: a. Try another appropriate frequency b. Start transmitting blind c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome d. Transmit words twice

Last Answer : a. Try another appropriate frequency

The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force

At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires: a. More thrust and a lower coefficient of lift b. Less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift c. More thrust and a lower coefficient of drag d. A higher coefficient of lift

Description : At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires: a. More thrust and a lower coefficient of lift b. Less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift c. More thrust and a lower coefficient of drag d. A higher coefficient of lift

Last Answer : d. A higher coefficient of lift

When does THRUST = DRAG? a. Climbing at a constant IAS b. Descending at a constant IAS c. Flying level at a constant IAS d. All of the above

Description : When does THRUST = DRAG? a. Climbing at a constant IAS b. Descending at a constant IAS c. Flying level at a constant IAS d. All of the above

Last Answer : c. Flying level at a constant IAS

You are flying at FL170. The pressure level which is closest to you is the: a. 300mb b. 700mb c. 500mb d. 850mb

Description : You are flying at FL170. The pressure level which is closest to you is the: a. 300mb b. 700mb c. 500mb d. 850mb

Last Answer : c. 500mb

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at: a. 18,000ft b. 20,000ft c. 23,000ft d. 3,600ft

Description : The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at: a. 18,000ft b. 20,000ft c. 23,000ft d. 3,600ft

Last Answer : b. 20,000ft

Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible c. Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system

Description : What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system

Last Answer : D. All of the above

An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from the center of the island b. Range 45nm and QTE 240 from the center of the island c. Range 45nm and QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Description : An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from ... QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Last Answer : d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected? a. The warm air side of the core b. Exactly in the center of the core c. About 12,000ft above the core d. The cold air side of the core

Description : In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected? a. The warm air side of the core b. Exactly in the center of the core c. About 12,000ft above the core d. The cold air side of the core

Last Answer : d. The cold air side of the core

What is the coldest time of the day? a. 1hr before sunrise b. 1/2 hr before sunrise c. At exact moment of sunrise d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

Description : What is the coldest time of the day? a. 1hr before sunrise b. 1/2 hr before sunrise c. At exact moment of sunrise d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

Last Answer : d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

Spring tides occur when : (1) the moon, the sun and the earth are in the same line (2) the sun is closest to earth (3) the moon is farthest from earth (4) the earth is at right angles with the sun and the moon

Description : Spring tides occur when : (1) the moon, the sun and the earth are in the same line (2) the sun is closest to earth (3) the moon is farthest from earth (4) the earth is at right angles with the sun and the moon

Last Answer : (1) the moon, the sun and the earth are in the same line Explanation: The combined tide raising forces of the Moon and the Sun are at their greatest effect when the Sun and the Moon are in line with the Earth. World Geography (Set: 01)

Spring tides occur when: (1) the moon, the sun and the earth are in the same line (2) the sun is closest to earth (3) the moon is farthest from earth (4) the earth is at right angles with the sun and the moon

Description : Spring tides occur when: (1) the moon, the sun and the earth are in the same line (2) the sun is closest to earth (3) the moon is farthest from earth (4) the earth is at right angles with the sun and the moon

Last Answer : (1) the moon, the sun and the earth are in the same line Explanation: The combined tide raising forces of the Moon and the Sun are at their greatest effect when the Sun and the Moon are in line with the Earth.