A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from: a. Twin DME b. VOR/DME c. Twin VOR d. Any of the above

A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from:  
a. Twin DME  
b. VOR/DME  
c. Twin VOR  
d. Any of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. VOR/DME
by

Related questions

An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation to the required track? a. 6nm right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track

Description : An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation ... right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track

Last Answer : c. 6nm left of track

Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route

Description : Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route

Last Answer : c. A DME on the flight plan route

DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because: a. The same receiver can be used for both aids b. The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency c. Cockpit workload is reduced d. Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required

Description : DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because: a. The same receiver can be used for both aids b. The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency c. Cockpit workload is reduced d. Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required

Last Answer : c. Cockpit workload is reduced

The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground

Description : The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground

Last Answer : a. On the ground only

An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM

Description : An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM

Last Answer : a. 285, TO

Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Which of the following is a primary radar system? a. SSR b. DME c. GPS d. AWR

Description : Which of the following is a primary radar system? a. SSR b. DME c. GPS d. AWR

Last Answer : d. AWR

What criteria determine which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage c. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment

Description : What criteria determine which engine is the critical engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one ... the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment

Last Answer : b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage

The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Description : The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond ... is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Last Answer : c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range

The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that: a. The DME is unserviceable b. The DME is trying to lock onto range c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station

Description : The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that: a. The DME is unserviceable b. The DME is trying to lock onto range c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station

Last Answer : b. The DME is trying to lock onto range

A typical DME frequency is: a. 1000 MHz b. 1300 MHz c. 1000 kHz d. 1575 MHz

Description : A typical DME frequency is: a. 1000 MHz b. 1300 MHz c. 1000 kHz d. 1575 MHz

Last Answer : a. 1000 MHz

The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate within: a. 3% of range b. 1.25% of range c. 0.5nm d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range

Description : The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate within: a. 3% of range b. 1.25% of range c. 0.5nm d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range

Last Answer : d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range

An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to: a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication c. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication

Description : An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to: a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication b. 244 to get the ... the correct needle sense and a FROM indication d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication

Last Answer : b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication

At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm

Description : At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm

Last Answer : a. 3.5nm

An aircraft wishes to track a VOR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W, what should be set on the OBS? a. 274 b. 264 c. 094 d. 084

Description : An aircraft wishes to track a VOR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W, what should be set on the OBS? a. 274 b. 264 c. 094 d. 084

Last Answer : c. 094

The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero: a. Are magnetic b. Are compass c. Are relative d. Must have deviation applied before being used

Description : The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero: a. Are magnetic b. Are compass c. Are relative d. Must have deviation applied before being used

Last Answer : a. Are magnetic

In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______. a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise b. AM, FM, clockwise c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise d. FM, AM, clockwise

Description : In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______. a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise b. AM, FM, clockwise c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise d. FM, AM, clockwise

Last Answer : a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise

The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency b. Discrete VHF only c. VOR frequency only d. Any ATC frequency

Description : The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency b. Discrete VHF only c. VOR frequency only d. Any ATC frequency

Last Answer : a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency

What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided? a. 25nm b. 10nm c. 15nm d. 15km

Description : What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided? a. 25nm b. 10nm c. 15nm d. 15km

Last Answer : a. 25nm

The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure

An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from the center of the island b. Range 45nm and QTE 240 from the center of the island c. Range 45nm and QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Description : An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from ... QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Last Answer : d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

The FMC navigational database can be accessed by the pilots: a. To update the database b. To read information only c. To change information between the 28 day updates d. To change the information to meet the sector requirements

Description : The FMC navigational database can be accessed by the pilots: a. To update the database b. To read information only c. To change information between the 28 day updates d. To change the information to meet the sector requirements

Last Answer : b. To read information only

In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR b. TAF c. METAR d. SIGMET

Description : In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR b. TAF c. METAR d. SIGMET

Last Answer : c. METAR

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be: a. APPROACH b. CENTRE c. INFORMATION d. RADIO

Description : The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be: a. APPROACH b. CENTRE c. INFORMATION d. RADIO

Last Answer : a. APPROACH

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to: a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO b. ICAO only c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Description : When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, ... on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Last Answer : a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

Description : A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such ... An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

Last Answer : c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

How to determine if enabling Quartz 2D Extreme will work on my Mac?

Description : How to determine if enabling Quartz 2D Extreme will work on my Mac?

Last Answer : i’m sure you already checked here, but just in case, maybe this will give you some info

What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line? A. B+2D B. B+D C. 2B+2D D. 2B+D

Description : What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line? A. B+2D B. B+D C. 2B+2D D. 2B+D

Last Answer : D. 2B+D

List out basic transformation techniques. Explain scaling transformation with respect to 2D.

Description : List out basic transformation techniques. Explain scaling transformation with respect to 2D.

Last Answer : Basic transformations techniques are: Translation Scaling Rotation Scaling Transformation Scaling means to change the size of object. This change can either be positive or negative. To change ... . If we provide values greater than 1, then we can increase the size of the object. 

During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting c. As soon as the pressure falls, the oxygen drop-out system will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body

Description : During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in ... will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body

Last Answer : b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting

What is the system minimum for an NDB approach? a. 200ft b. 250ft c. 300ft d. 350ft

Description : What is the system minimum for an NDB approach? a. 200ft b. 250ft c. 300ft d. 350ft

Last Answer : c. 300ft

The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Last Answer : b. 10,000ft

The purpose of an accumulator is to: a. Relieve excess pressure b. Store fluid under pressure c. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation d. Remove air from the system

Description : The purpose of an accumulator is to: a. Relieve excess pressure b. Store fluid under pressure c. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation d. Remove air from the system

Last Answer : b. Store fluid under pressure

What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system

Description : What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system

Last Answer : D. All of the above

With air in the hydraulic system, you would: a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it b. Bleed the air out of the system c. Allow the accumulator to auto

Description : With air in the hydraulic system, you would: a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it b. Bleed the air out of the system c. Allow the accumulator to auto

Last Answer : b. Bleed the air out of the system

At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is: a. Inoperative b. Operative c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes

Description : At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is: a. Inoperative b. Operative c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes

Last Answer : a. Inoperative

A nose wheel control system a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position c. Allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised

Description : A nose wheel control system a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position c. Allows the nosewheel to ... freely at all times d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised

Last Answer : b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position

A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

Description : A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

Last Answer : c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply

With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ‘ON’: a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever the TOAT is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on

Description : With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ON': a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever ... is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on

Last Answer : b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture

If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll

If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Last Answer : b. 15:1

What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true airspeed and angle of attack c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed

Description : What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true ... c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed

Last Answer : a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force