How do you control power in a jet engine? a. By controlling the mixture ratio b. By controlling the fuel flow c. By controlling the airflow d. By controlling the bleed valves

How do you control power in a jet engine?  
a. By controlling the mixture ratio  
b. By controlling the fuel flow  
c. By controlling the airflow  
d. By controlling the bleed valves
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. By controlling the fuel flow
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Related questions

How do you control power in a jet engine? a. By controlling the mixture ratio b. By controlling the fuel flow c. By controlling the airflow d. By controlling the bleed valves

Description : How do you control power in a jet engine? a. By controlling the mixture ratio b. By controlling the fuel flow c. By controlling the airflow d. By controlling the bleed valves

Last Answer : b. By controlling the fuel flow

In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over loading of the structure d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

What controls cabin pressurisation? a. ECS pack mass flow controller b. Outflow valve c. Engine bleed valve d. Inflow valve

Description : What controls cabin pressurisation? a. ECS pack mass flow controller b. Outflow valve c. Engine bleed valve d. Inflow valve

Last Answer : b. Outflow valve

The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Description : The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Last Answer : c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture

If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1: a. The take-off can be continued or aborted b. The take-off should be aborted c. The take-off should be continued d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP

Description : If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1: a. The take-off can be continued or aborted b. The take-off should be aborted c. The take-off should be continued d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP

Last Answer : b. The take-off should be aborted

With air in the hydraulic system, you would: a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it b. Bleed the air out of the system c. Allow the accumulator to auto

Description : With air in the hydraulic system, you would: a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it b. Bleed the air out of the system c. Allow the accumulator to auto

Last Answer : b. Bleed the air out of the system

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time and distance to PSR is: a. 1hr 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Description : A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time ... 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Last Answer : d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

Description : A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

Last Answer : c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend

The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Description : The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Last Answer : c. GROUND

When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur? a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture b. Cruise power c. In the descent if you have not adjusted the mixture d. Max take-off power

Description : When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur? a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture b. Cruise power c. In the descent if you have not adjusted the mixture d. Max take-off power

Last Answer : a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture

Check valves are used (A) At high pressure (B) In bends (C) For controlling water flow (D) For unidirectional flow

Description : Check valves are used (A) At high pressure (B) In bends (C) For controlling water flow (D) For unidirectional flow

Last Answer : (D) For unidirectional flow

A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Last Answer : c. Excess engine power

Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what and what should you do? a. Marked temperature drop; apply full power b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

What controls cabin pressurisation? a. ECS pack mass flow controller b. Outflow valve c. Engine bleed valve d. Inflow valve

Description : What controls cabin pressurisation? a. ECS pack mass flow controller b. Outflow valve c. Engine bleed valve d. Inflow valve

Last Answer : b. Outflow valve

Fuel is to be jettisoned: a. Over the sea and then only above 10,000ft b. Over the sea or over land above 10,000ft AGL c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter

Description : Fuel is to be jettisoned: a. Over the sea and then only above 10,000ft b. Over the sea or over land above 10,000ft AGL c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter

Last Answer : c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: LRC, at FL330 outside air temperature -30C. Find estimated trip fuel and time. a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V ... b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Last Answer : a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Last Answer : b. 2800kg

DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193kg b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

Description : DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination ... 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

Last Answer : b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg

How is fuel consumption affect by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg? a. Increases with a forward C of G b. Decreases with an aft C of G c. Decreases with a forward C of G d. Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position

Description : How is fuel consumption affect by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg? a. Increases with a forward C of G b. Decreases with an aft C of G c. Decreases with a forward C of G d. Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position

Last Answer : c. Decreases with a forward C of G

Define the useful load: a. traffic load plus dry operating mass b. traffic load plus usable fuel mass c. dry operating mass plus usable fuel load d. that part of the traffic load which generates revenue

Description : Define the useful load: a. traffic load plus dry operating mass b. traffic load plus usable fuel mass c. dry operating mass plus usable fuel load d. that part of the traffic load which generates revenue

Last Answer : a. traffic load plus dry operating mass

Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Description : Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Last Answer : a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption

At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Description : At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Last Answer : c. 30.3 USG/Hr

Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA

How much fuel can be jettisoned? a. A specific amount b. The captain decides c. All d. A specified amount must remain

Description : How much fuel can be jettisoned? a. A specific amount b. The captain decides c. All d. A specified amount must remain

Last Answer : d. A specified amount must remain

The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller: a. Depends on forward speed only b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed c. Depends on engine rotational speed only d. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller

Description : The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller: a. Depends on forward speed only b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed c. Depends on engine rotational speed only d. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller

Last Answer : b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed

What criteria determine which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage c. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment

Description : What criteria determine which engine is the critical engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one ... the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment

Last Answer : b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage

With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ‘ON’: a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever the TOAT is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on

Description : With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ON': a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever ... is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on

Last Answer : b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture

How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs

Satellite engine uses A. jet propulsion B. ion propulsion system C. liquid fuel D. solar jet

Description : Satellite engine uses A. jet propulsion B. ion propulsion system C. liquid fuel D. solar jet

Last Answer : B. ion propulsion system

Satellite engine use A. liquid fuel B. jet propulsion C. ion propulsion system D. solar jet

Description : Satellite engine use A. liquid fuel B. jet propulsion C. ion propulsion system D. solar jet

Last Answer : C. ion propulsion system

__________ is used as jet engine fuel. (A) Petrol (B) Diesel(C) Kerosene(D) LPG

Description : __________ is used as jet engine fuel. (A) Petrol (B) Diesel (C) Kerosene (D) LPG

Last Answer : (C) Kerosene

Choke in a I.C. engine is used to control a) Camshaft speed b) Specific fuel consumption c) Air fuel mixture d) Crankshaft speed Ans. c

Description : Choke in a I.C. engine is used to control a) Camshaft speed b) Specific fuel consumption c) Air fuel mixture d) Crankshaft speed Ans. c

Last Answer : ans c

The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Description : The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Last Answer : c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture

An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Last Answer : b. 15:1

To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

Description : To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

Last Answer : d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag? a. Increased aspect ratio increases induced drag b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag c. Changing aspect ratio has no effect on induced drag d. Induced drag will equal 1:3 x aspect ratio/chord ratio

Description : What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag? a. Increased aspect ratio increases induced drag b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag c. Changing aspect ratio has no effect on induced drag d. Induced drag will equal 1:3 x aspect ratio/chord ratio

Last Answer : b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag

The best EAS/Drag ratio is approximately: a. 1.3 VMD b. 1.32 VMD c. 1.6 VMD d. 1.8 VMD

Description : The best EAS/Drag ratio is approximately: a. 1.3 VMD b. 1.32 VMD c. 1.6 VMD d. 1.8 VMD

Last Answer : b. 1.32 VMD

Which of the following would give the greatest gliding performance? a. Flight at VMD b. Flight at 1.32VMD c. Flight at the best CL/CD ratio d. Flight close to CL MAX

Description : Which of the following would give the greatest gliding performance? a. Flight at VMD b. Flight at 1.32VMD c. Flight at the best CL/CD ratio d. Flight close to CL MAX

Last Answer : d. Flight close to CL MAX

The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps

Description : The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps

Last Answer : c. The elevators

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag

If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

The best strategies to increase stress tolerance are: a. Planning, experience and self-control (fewer unexpected situation) b. Learning, experience and anticipation c. Learning, experience and CRM d. Planning, experience and CRM

Description : The best strategies to increase stress tolerance are: a. Planning, experience and self-control (fewer unexpected situation) b. Learning, experience and anticipation c. Learning, experience and CRM d. Planning, experience and CRM

Last Answer : c. Learning, experience and CRM

Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless of the direction from which B approaches b. Aircraft B, regardless of the direction from which A approaches c. Aircraft A, if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless ... , if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

A nose wheel control system a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position c. Allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised

Description : A nose wheel control system a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position c. Allows the nosewheel to ... freely at all times d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised

Last Answer : b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position