Description : What controls cabin pressurisation? a. ECS pack mass flow controller b. Outflow valve c. Engine bleed valve d. Inflow valve
Last Answer : b. Outflow valve
Description : How do you control power in a jet engine? a. By controlling the mixture ratio b. By controlling the fuel flow c. By controlling the airflow d. By controlling the bleed valves
Last Answer : b. By controlling the fuel flow
Description : A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve
Last Answer : c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Description : Decrease in a creditor is a---------------- of cash a) Inflow b) No flow of cash c) Outflow d) None of these
Last Answer : c) Outflow
Description : The total accumulated value of foreign- owned assets at a given period of time is __. A. flow of FDI B. stock of FDI C. inflow of FDI D. outflow of FDI
Last Answer : B. stock of FDI
Description : Euler's equation of motion states, that at every point, the (A) Fluid momentum is constant (B) Force per unit mass equals acceleration (C) Rate of mass outflow is equal to the rate of mass inflow (D) None of these
Last Answer : (B) Force per unit mass equals acceleration
Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down
Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down
Description : With air in the hydraulic system, you would: a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it b. Bleed the air out of the system c. Allow the accumulator to auto
Last Answer : b. Bleed the air out of the system
Description : Consider the following statements. In case of flood routing in a river channel by Muskingum method, the coefficient x represents : 1. A dimensionless constant indicating the relative importance of inflow and outflow in determining storage ... , 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Last Answer : (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Description : One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is: a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner b. For the ... to direct passengers' attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them
Last Answer : c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions
Description : During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in ... will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body
Last Answer : b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting
Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft
Last Answer : b. 10,000ft
Description : If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate: a. Zero b. Climb c. Descent d. Reducing pressure
Last Answer : b. Climb
Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions
Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter
Description : Maximum Differential pressure: a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the ... time limit d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry
Last Answer : a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure
Description : When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation
Last Answer : a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft
Last Answer : a. Pilot in command
Description : The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls
Last Answer : b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required
Description : To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently
Last Answer : a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days
Description : During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls
Last Answer : b. The importance of crew coordination
Description : If the demand line drawn from a ridge in a flow mass curve does not intersect the curve again, it indicates that (A) Demand cannot be met by inflow (B) Reservoir was not full at the beginning (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Last Answer : Answer: Option A
Description : Consider the following situation in a flow mass curve study when demand line drawn from a ridge in the mass curve does not intersect the mass curve again. This means that : (a) The storage is not ... (c) The reservoir was not full at the beginning (d) The reservoir is wasting water by spill
Last Answer : (b) The demand cannot be met by the inflow as the reservoir will not refill
Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes
Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM
Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed
Last Answer : c. Excess engine power
Description : The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller: a. Depends on forward speed only b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed c. Depends on engine rotational speed only d. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller
Last Answer : b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed
Description : What criteria determine which engine is the critical engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one ... the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment
Last Answer : b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage
Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out
Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power
Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed
Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft
Description : If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1: a. The take-off can be continued or aborted b. The take-off should be aborted c. The take-off should be continued d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP
Last Answer : b. The take-off should be aborted
Description : The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature
Last Answer : c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
Description : With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ON': a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever ... is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on
Last Answer : b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture
Description : What is Bleed Valve?
Last Answer : Answer: Small valve provided for drawing off liquid.
Description : A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time ... 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm
Last Answer : d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm
Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr
Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs
Description : What controls cabin pressurization
Last Answer : B. Outflow valve
Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V ... b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min
Last Answer : a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min
Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg
Last Answer : b. 2800kg
Description : DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination ... 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg
Last Answer : b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg
Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt
Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt
Description : An aeroplane of 110,000kg has its CG at 22.6m aft of the datum. The CG limits are 18m to 22m aft of the datum. How much mass must be removed from a hold 30m aft of the datum to bring the CG to its mid point? a. 26,800 kg b. 28,600 kg c. 86,200 kg d. 62,800 kg
Last Answer : b. 28,600 kg
Description : Define the useful load: a. traffic load plus dry operating mass b. traffic load plus usable fuel mass c. dry operating mass plus usable fuel load d. that part of the traffic load which generates revenue
Last Answer : a. traffic load plus dry operating mass
Description : What factors affect descent angle in a glide? a. Configuration and altitude b. Configuration and angle of attack c. Mass and altitude d. Mass and configuration
Last Answer : b. Configuration and angle of attack
Description : At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires: a. More thrust and a lower coefficient of lift b. Less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift c. More thrust and a lower coefficient of drag d. A higher coefficient of lift
Last Answer : d. A higher coefficient of lift
Description : The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass ... of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity
Last Answer : b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing
Description : What is a cash flow table in project management? A. A table portraying inflow of cash in a project B. A table portraying outgoing expenses of a project C. It is the tool that is used ... inflows and outflows down, usually on a monthly basis D. A table portraying debts taken for a project
Last Answer : C. It is the tool that is used to study such cash flows by breaking inflows and outflows down, usually on a monthly basis
Description : Which of the following is least likely to be part of the calculation of the terminal- year incremental net cash flow for an energy-related expansion project? A. An initial working capital ... Disposal/reclamation costs C. Capitalized expenditures D. Salvage value of any sold or disposed assets
Last Answer : D. Salvage value of any sold or disposed assets
Description : The continuity equation in ideal fluid flow states that (A) Net rate of inflow into any small volume must be zero (B) Energy is not constant along a streamline (C) Energy is constant along a streamline (D) There exists a velocity potential
Last Answer : (A) Net rate of inflow into any small volume must be zero