Description : What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach? a. 1500m b. 1600m c. 2400m d. 3600m
Last Answer : a. 1500m
Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF
Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach
Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome
Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency
Description : The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce ... d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water
Last Answer : c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first
Description : What is DH used for? a. Visual maneuvering b. Circling to land c. Precision approaches d. Non-precision approaches
Last Answer : c. Precision approaches
Description : What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m
Last Answer : b. 1500m
Description : What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach? a. No minimum b. 50m c. 75m d. 100m
Last Answer : a. No minimum
Description : Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
Last Answer : c. 5
Description : Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Last Answer : b. 2
Description : Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
Last Answer : b. 5
Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days
Last Answer : d. 60 days
Description : When can special VFR be commenced? a. Visibility greater than 1500m b. Greater than 3km vis c. Visibility no more than 3000m d. Greater than 5km vis
Last Answer : b. Greater than 3km vis
Description : Refer to the following TAF for Zurich LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is: a. 6km b. 6nm c. 4km d. 10km
Last Answer : a. 6km
Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Description : An aircraft flying over the sea between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL and outside CAS. To continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain: a. 2000ft horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with ... visibility of 5km d. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with visibility of 5km
Last Answer : b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km
Description : What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from ... . 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D
Last Answer : d. The same as Class D
Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility
Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility
Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed
Last Answer : c. Excess engine power
Description : What criteria determine which engine is the critical engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one ... the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment
Last Answer : b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage
Description : The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude
Last Answer : b. Variations in aeroplane loading
Description : Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal ... greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal
Last Answer : b. These forces are equal
Description : From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used? a. Green b. Red c. White d. All of the above
Last Answer : b. Red
Description : If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent ... d. Locate and move the device to the least risk' location and apply as much padding as possible
Last Answer : d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible
Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out
Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power
Description : If the captain elects to ditch the aeroplane, it is recommended to: a. Land along the swell b. Land into the swell but down wind c. Land into the swell but into wind d. Land into wind regardless of the swell direction if the wind speed is over 20kts
Last Answer : a. Land along the swell
Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed
Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft
Description : What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same ... 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days
Last Answer : c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days
Description : Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane
Last Answer : a. The Commander or the Operato
Description : An aeroplane of 110,000kg has its CG at 22.6m aft of the datum. The CG limits are 18m to 22m aft of the datum. How much mass must be removed from a hold 30m aft of the datum to bring the CG to its mid point? a. 26,800 kg b. 28,600 kg c. 86,200 kg d. 62,800 kg
Last Answer : b. 28,600 kg
Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight
Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance
Description : What is the system minimum for an NDB approach? a. 200ft b. 250ft c. 300ft d. 350ft
Last Answer : c. 300ft
Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach
Last Answer : b. increased
Description : Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power c. Eliminates floating d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed
Last Answer : a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
Description : On an ILS approach, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must you abort the approach? a. Start of the glide-slope descent b. FAF c. Inner marker d. Outer marker
Last Answer : d. Outer marker
Description : The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate: a. On take-off b. At TOC c. At TOD d. On final approach
Last Answer : c. At TOD
Description : The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is: a. White, blue, amber b. Blue, white, amber c. Blue, amber, white d. Amber, blue, white
Last Answer : c. Blue, amber, white
Description : How do misty/foggy conditions affect the pilot's judgment on the approach? a. Underestimating range due to illusionary effect through the cockpit glass b. Underestimating range due to the ... to illusionary effect through the cockpit glass d. Overestimating range due to the lights appearing dim
Last Answer : d. Overestimating range due to the lights appearing dim
Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday
Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
Description : The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be: a. APPROACH b. CENTRE c. INFORMATION d. RADIO
Last Answer : a. APPROACH
Description : An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there? a. 4 b. 5 c. 3 d. 6
Description : A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such ... An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
Last Answer : c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA
Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
Description : In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected? a. The warm air side of the core b. Exactly in the center of the core c. About 12,000ft above the core d. The cold air side of the core
Last Answer : d. The cold air side of the core
Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed
Last Answer : b. Descend
Description : Which of the following statement is an interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / ... towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260
Last Answer : c. Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and FL380
Description : What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a. Change of flight level b. Change of course c. Increase of speed d. Decrease of speed
Last Answer : a. Change of flight level