Which of the following categories of laxatives draw water into the intestines by osmosis? a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 hours of consumption.

Which of the following categories of laxatives draw water into
the intestines by osmosis?
a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia)
Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2
hours of consumption.
b) Bulk-forming agents (Metamucil)
Bulk-forming agents mix with intestinal fluids, swell, and stimulate
peristalsis.
c) Stimulants (Dulcolax)
Stimulants irritate the colon epithelium.
d) Fecal softeners (Colace)
Fecal softeners hydrate the stool by surfactant action on the colonic
epithelium, resulting in mixing of aqueous and fatty substances.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia)
Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2
hours of consumption.
by

Related questions

Of the following categories of oral antidiabetic agents, which exert their primary action by directly stimulating the pancreas to secrete insulin? a) Sulfonylureas Therefore, a functioning pancreas is necessary for sulfonylureas to be effective.

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Last Answer : a) Sulfonylureas Therefore, a functioning pancreas is necessary for sulfonylureas to be effective.

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Last Answer : a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid ... population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

What foods stimulate peristalsis?

Description : What foods stimulate peristalsis?

Last Answer : All of them.

Vegetables and fruits should be a part of our diet because they stimulate - (1) Peristalsis (2) Salivation (3) Excretion (4) Respiration

Description : Vegetables and fruits should be a part of our diet because they stimulate - (1) Peristalsis (2) Salivation (3) Excretion (4) Respiration

Last Answer : (1) Peristalsis Explanation: Vegetable and fruits should be a part of our diet because they stimulate peristalsis.

Vegetables and fruits should be a part of our diet because they stimulate (1) Peristalsis (2) Salivation (3) Excretion (4) Respiration

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Which of the following colloids is expensive but rapidly expands plasma volume? a) Albumin Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply, and can cause congestive heart failure. b) Dextran Dextran is a colloid, synthetic plasma expander that interferes with platelet aggregation and is not recommended for hemorrhagic shock. c) Lactated Ringers Lactated ringers is a crystalloid, not a colloid. d) Hypertonic Saline Hypertonic saline is a crystalloid, not a colloid.

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Which of the following solutions is hypotonic? a) 0.45% NaCl. Half-strength saline is hypotonic b) Lactated Ringer’s solution. Lactated Ringer’s is isotonic. c) 0.9% NaCl. Normal saline (0.9% NaCl) is isotonic. d) 5% NaCl. A solution that is 5% NaCl is hypertonic.

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Last Answer : a) 0.45% NaCl. Half-strength saline is hypotonic

Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

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The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

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Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.

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Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

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When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

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The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

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Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

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Of the following categories of medications, which is used in combination with bismuth salts to eradicate Helicobacter pylori? a) Antibiotics Antibiotics and bismuth salts are given to eradicate H. pylori. b) Antacids Antacids are given to manage gastric acidity. c) Proton pump inhibitors Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease acid secretion. d) Histamine-2 receptor antagonists Histamine-2 receptor antagonists are given to decrease the acid secretion in the stomach.

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Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

Description : Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) ... , 70 Pressure of 120 systolic and 70 diastolic falls within the normal range for an adult.

Last Answer : a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

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Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice? a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease Although nursing interventions used by public health nurses might involve individuals, families, or small groups, the central focus remains promoting health and preventing disease in the entire community. b) Rehabilitation and restorative services Rehabilitation and restorative services are the focus of extended care facilities and home care nursing.

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According to Maslow, which of the following categories of needs represents the most basic? a) Physiologic needs Physiologic needs must be met before an individual is able to move toward psychological health and well-being. b) Self-actualization Self-actualization is the highest level of need c) Safety and security needs Safety and security needs, while lower level, are not essential to physiologic survival. d) Belongingness Belongingness and affection needs are not essential to physiologic survival.

Description : According to Maslow, which of the following categories of needs represents the most basic? a) Physiologic needs Physiologic needs must be met before an individual is able to move ... physiologic survival. d) Belongingness Belongingness and affection needs are not essential to physiologic survival.

Last Answer : a) Physiologic needs Physiologic needs must be met before an individual is able to move toward psychological health and well-being.

Proteins formed when cells are exposed to viral or foreign agents that are capable of activating other components of the immune system are referred to as a) interferons. Interferons are biologic response modifiers with nonspecific viricidal proteins.

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Last Answer : a) interferons. Interferons are biologic response modifiers with nonspecific viricidal proteins.

Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Description : Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are ... be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.

Last Answer : a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

Description : Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose ... islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 2 diabetes do not demonstrate islet cell antibodies.

Last Answer : a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell– cycle-specific? a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase). b) Antitumor antibiotics (bleomycin) Antitumor antibiotics are cell-cycle nonspecific. c) Alkylating agents (cisplatin) Alkylating agents are cell-cycle nonspecific. d) Nitrosureas (carmustine) Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

Description : Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell- cycle-specific? a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell-cycle-specific (S phase). b) Antitumor antibiotics ( ... agents are cell-cycle nonspecific. d) Nitrosureas (carmustine) Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

Last Answer : a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase).

The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. c) Retinoids Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

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Last Answer : a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim.

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

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Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out ... alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.

Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

The first line of host defense is the barrier presented to the external environment. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning host barriers? a. Sebaceous glands secrete chemical compounds that maintain a relatively high pH, providing effective bacterial stasis b. Within the respiratory tract, ciliary function serves to extrude microorganisms trapped within the mucus secretion layer c. The low pH within the stomach markedly decreases bacterial content of the upper gastrointestinal tract d. Gut peristalsis serves to prevent microbial adherence and invasion

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Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation Palpation refers to examination by non-forceful touching. c) Auscultation Auscultation refers to the skill of listening to sounds produced within the body created by movement of air or fluid. d) Manipulation Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Description : Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation ... Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Last Answer : a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound.

What is Milk of Magnesia ?

Description : What is Milk of Magnesia ?

Last Answer : : The suspension of magnesium hydroxide [ Mg (OH) 2] is better known as Milk of Magnesia .

What is the function of Milk Of Magnesia ?

Description : What is the function of Milk Of Magnesia ?

Last Answer : It is used to treat bowel movements , stomach acid and other conditions. It is used especially when the toilet is closed.

Milk of magnesia is a suspension of – (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium Chloride

Description : Milk of magnesia is a suspension of – (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium Chloride

Last Answer : (3) magnesium hydroxide Explanation: Milk of magnesia is a suspension of magnesium hydroxide due to its milk-like appearance.

Milk of magnesia is a suspension of – (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium Chloride

Description : Milk of magnesia is a suspension of – (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium Chloride

Last Answer : (3) magnesium hydroxide Explanation: Milk of magnesia is a suspension of magnesium hydroxide due to its milk-like appearance.

Milk of magnesia is an example of a/an (1) Acid (2) Base (3) Salt (4) None of the above

Description : Milk of magnesia is an example of a/an (1) Acid (2) Base (3) Salt (4) None of the above

Last Answer : (2) Base Explanation: Milk of Magnesia or Magnesium hydrozide is a base and an antacid. During indigestion, the stomach produces too much acid and this causes pain and irritation. To get rid of this pain, people use bases called antacids.

Milk of magnesia is a suspension of – (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium Chloride

Description : Milk of magnesia is a suspension of – (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium Chloride

Last Answer : (3) magnesium hydroxide Explanation: Milk of magnesia is a suspension of magnesium hydroxide due to its milk-like appearance.

`Milk of Magnesia' is a suspension of – (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium chloride

Description : `Milk of Magnesia' is a suspension of – (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium chloride

Last Answer : (3) magnesium hydroxide Explanation: Magnesium hydroxide is an inorganic compound with the chemical formula Mg(OH)2. As a suspension in water. it is often called milk of magnesia because of its milk-like appearance.

Milk of magnesia is a suspension of – (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium Chloride

Description : Milk of magnesia is a suspension of – (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium Chloride

Last Answer : (3) magnesium hydroxide Explanation: Milk of magnesia is a suspension of magnesium hydroxide due to its milk-like appearance.

What is "milk of magnesia" chemically? (1) Magnesium carbonate (2) Sodium bicarbonate (3) Calcium hydroxide (4) Magnesium hydroxide

Description : What is "milk of magnesia" chemically? (1) Magnesium carbonate (2) Sodium bicarbonate (3) Calcium hydroxide (4) Magnesium hydroxide

Last Answer : (4) Magnesium hydroxide Explanation: agnesium hydroxide is an inorganic compound with the chemical formula Mg(OH)2. As a suspension in water, it is often called milk of magnesia because of its milk-like appearance. The solid mineral form of magnesium hydroxide is known as brucite.

‘Milk of Magnesia’ is a suspension of : (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium chloride

Description : ‘Milk of Magnesia’ is a suspension of : (1) magnesium sulphate (2) magnesium carbonate (3) magnesium hydroxide (4) magnesium chloride

Last Answer :  magnesium hydroxide

What is “milk of magnesia” chemically ? (1) Magnesium carbonate (2) Sodium bicarbonate (3) Calcium hydroxide (4) Magnesium hydroxide

Description : What is “milk of magnesia” chemically ? (1) Magnesium carbonate (2) Sodium bicarbonate (3) Calcium hydroxide (4) Magnesium hydroxide

Last Answer : Magnesium hydroxide

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.