The initial symptoms of new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) are a) anxiety, depression, and behavioral changes. Anxiety, depression, and behavioral changes are the initial symptoms of nvCJD

The initial symptoms of new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
(nvCJD) are
a) anxiety, depression, and behavioral changes.
Anxiety, depression, and behavioral changes are the initial symptoms
of nvCJD
b) memory and cognitive impairment.
Memory and cognitive impairment occur late in the course of nvCJD
c) diplopia and bradykinesia.
Anxiety, depression and behavioral changes are the initial symptoms
of nvCJD
d) akathisia and dysphagia.
Anxiety, depression and behavioral changes are the initial symptoms
of nvCJD
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) anxiety, depression, and behavioral changes.
Anxiety, depression, and behavioral changes are the initial symptoms
of nvCJD
by

Related questions

Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to the fatal outcome of nvCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive.

Description : Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to ... B is used in the treatment of fungal encephalitis; no treatment is available for nvCJD.

Last Answer : a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to the fatal outcome of nvCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

Description : Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

Last Answer : DefinitionCreutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is a form of brain damage that leads to a rapid decrease of mental function and movement.Alternative NamesTransmissible spongiform encephalopathy; vCJD; CJD; Jacob-Creutzfeldt ... CJD makes up the majority of cases. It occurs for no known reason. Average age

Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress, impaired functioning, or accentuated risk of enduring severe suffering or possible death? a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994. b) Emotional disorder There is no universally accepted definition of what constitutes an emotional disorder. c) Anxiety Anxiety is defined as fear of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) ... disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia.

Last Answer : a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Of the following stages of grieving as described by Kubler-Ross, which is the initial? a) Denial The stages include: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. b) Anger Anger is the second stage of the process. c) Bargaining Bargaining is the third stage of the process. d) Depression Depression is the fourth stage of the process.

Description : Of the following stages of grieving as described by Kubler-Ross, which is the initial? a) Denial The stages include: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. b) Anger Anger is the second ... is the third stage of the process. d) Depression Depression is the fourth stage of the process.

Last Answer : a) Denial The stages include: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

Which of the following terms, according to Lazarus, refers to the process through which an event is evaluated with respect to what is at stake and what might and can be done? a) Cognitive appraisal The outcome of cognitive appraisal is identification of the situation as either stressful or non-stressful. b) Coping Coping consists of both cognitive and behavioral efforts made to manage the specific external or internal demand that taxes a person’s resources. c) Hardiness Hardiness is a personality characteristic that is composed of control, commitment, and challenge. d) Adaptation Lazarus believed adaptation was affected by emotion that subsumed stress and coping.

Description : Which of the following terms, according to Lazarus, refers to the process through which an event is evaluated with respect to what is at stake and what might and can be done? a) ... and challenge. d) Adaptation Lazarus believed adaptation was affected by emotion that subsumed stress and coping.

Last Answer : a) Cognitive appraisal The outcome of cognitive appraisal is identification of the situation as either stressful or non-stressful.

Asking the patient questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided would be included during which step of the nursing process? a) Evaluation Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes. b) Assessment Assessment includes determining the patient’s readiness regarding learning. c) Planning and goals Planning includes identification of teaching strategies and writing the teaching plan. d) Implementation Implementation is the step during which the teaching plan is put into action.

Description : Asking the patient questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided would be included during which step of the nursing process? a) Evaluation Evaluation includes observing ... ) Implementation Implementation is the step during which the teaching plan is put into action.

Last Answer : a) Evaluation Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes.

Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Description : Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) ... the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Last Answer : a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients.

The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

Description : The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is ... delirium. d) 50%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium.

Last Answer : a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor’s office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid for analysis. It has been shown to identify atypical cells in this population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

Description : Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline ... risk for benign proliferative breast disease; it is not specific for women with breast implants.

Last Answer : a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid ... population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

How to get over or handle really bad anxiety?

Description : How to get over or handle really bad anxiety?

Last Answer : Taking deep, slow breaths really helps physiologically during an attack. You might want to do some short term therapy as well to reduce the strength of the anxiety.

Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

Description : Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, ... the incident is put into perspective. Some patients never fully recover from rape trauma.

Last Answer : a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). b) anorectal abscess. An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. c) anal fistula. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).

Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient’s level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

Description : Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient's level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with ... in support groups. Participation in support groups indicates some degree of comfort with prognosis.

Last Answer : a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

Which of the following terms refers to a graft derived from one part of a patient’s body and used on another part of that same patient’s body? a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a graft derived from one part of a patient's body and used on another part of that same patient's body? a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle ... A heterograft is a graft obtained from an animal of a species other than that of the recipient.

Last Answer : a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.

31. Based on the initial manifestation on admission, the nurse is looking for positive manifestations of appendicitis which includes the following except

Description : 31. Based on the initial manifestation on admission, the nurse is looking for positive manifestations of appendicitis which includes the following except

Last Answer : C. Thrombocytopenia

A staff nurse was found charting blood glucose result without actually doing the procedure. What is the appropriate initial action of the senior nurse? A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary B. Go on leave without pay C. Write an incident report D. Explain to the patient

Description : A staff nurse was found charting blood glucose result without actually doing the procedure. What is the appropriate initial action of the senior nurse? A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary B. Go on leave without pay C. Write an incident report D. Explain to the patient

Last Answer : A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. c) Flail chest Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. d) Funnel chest Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan’s syndrome or rickets.

Description : Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest Barrel chest results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest ... depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan's syndrome or rickets.

Last Answer : a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position.

The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Description : The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan's syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. ... kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Last Answer : a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis.

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

Mu opioids have which of the following effects on respiratory rate: a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation. b) No change Kappa opioids result in no change in respiratory rate. c) Stimulation, only Delta opioids result in stimulation of respiratory rate. d) Depression, only Neither mu, nor kappa, nor delta opoids depress respiratory rate as its only effect upon respiratory rate.

Description : Mu opioids have which of the following effects on respiratory rate: a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation. b) No change Kappa opioids result ... nor kappa, nor delta opoids depress respiratory rate as its only effect upon respiratory rate.

Last Answer : a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation.

Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance. b) Depression Depression is a mood disorder that disrupts quality of life. c) Delirium Delirium is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Description : Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of ... is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Last Answer : a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance.

Which of the following statements accurately describes a risk factor for depression? a) History of physical or sexual abuse History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are risk factors for depression. b) Male gender A risk factor for depression is female gender. c) Age over 50 years A risk factor for depression is onset before 40 years. d) Negative family history of depression Family history of depression is a risk factor.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes a risk factor for depression? a) History of physical or sexual abuse History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are risk ... years. d) Negative family history of depression Family history of depression is a risk factor.

Last Answer : a) History of physical or sexual abuse History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are risk factors for depression.

A drug which preferentially dilates autoregulatory coronary arterioles with little effect on large conducting vessels is likely to: A. Evoke coronary steal phenomenon B. Mitigate classical angina but not variant angina C. Decrease total coronary blood flow in healthy subjects D. Avert ECG changes of ischaemia

Description : A drug which preferentially dilates autoregulatory coronary arterioles with little effect on large conducting vessels is likely to: A. Evoke coronary steal phenomenon B. Mitigate classical angina but not ... . Decrease total coronary blood flow in healthy subjects D. Avert ECG changes of ischaemia

Last Answer : A. Evoke coronary steal phenomenon

What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

Description : What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s ... 80% of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now experiencing post-polio syndrome.

Last Answer : a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

Matthias-jakob-schleiden?

Description : Matthias-jakob-schleiden?

Last Answer : njlbhkgvcftdxrsedrcftvgybhnjkmnjhbugvyftcdxcfvgbhnjmnihubgyvftcnherughevoghewrouhgevpogheu hg696969bjeri ci4r bgi ucb420420420bf irgcfugeuecugu4cgniue gn9u24gn92u4 h47 hpiughur

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height are history and physical findings associated with agerelated changes of the a) joints. History and physical findings associated with age-related changes of the joints include diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height.

Description : Diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height are history and physical findings associated with agerelated changes of the a) joints. History and physical ... resolves with rest, crepitus, joint swelling/enlargement, and degenerative joint disease (osteoarthritis).

Last Answer : a) joints. History and physical findings associated with age-related changes of the joints include diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height.

Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients during an examination of neurologic function include which of the following? a) Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients include decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes.

Description : Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients during an examination of neurologic function include which of the following? a) Decreased or absent deep ... and movement times Strength and agility are diminished and reaction and movement times are decreased.

Last Answer : a) Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients include decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes.

Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss. b) Exostoses Exostoses refers ... loss of hearing related to damage of the end organ for hearing and/or cranial nerve VIII.

Last Answer : a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Antimicrobial barrier?Acticoat dressings used in the treatment of burn wounds can be left in place for five days. a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days thus helping to decrease discomfort to the patient, decrease costs of dressing supplies, and decrease nursing time involved in burn dressing changes.

Description : Antimicrobial barrier?Acticoat dressings used in the treatment of burn wounds can be left in place for five days. a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days ... ) two days. antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in?Acticoat place for up to five days.

Last Answer : a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days thus helping to decrease discomfort to the patient, decrease costs of dressing supplies, and decrease nursing time involved in burn dressing changes.

In which type of cardiomyopathy does the heart muscle actually increase in size and mass weight, especially along the septum? a) Hypertrophic Because of the structural changes, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy had also been called idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) or asymmetric septal hypertrophy (ASH).

Description : In which type of cardiomyopathy does the heart muscle actually increase in size and mass weight, especially along the septum? a) Hypertrophic Because of the structural changes, hypertrophic ... of the right ventricle is progressively infiltrated and replaced by fibrous scar and adipose tissue

Last Answer : a) Hypertrophic Because of the structural changes, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy had also been called idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) or asymmetric septal hypertrophy (ASH).

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Description : During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and ... of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

The basic difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems is that a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect onset or changes and manage through the use of physician-prescribed and nursing-prescribed interventions to minimize the complications of events.

Description : The basic difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems is that a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic ... or potential health problems that can be managed by independent nursing interventions.

Last Answer : a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect onset or changes and manage ... physician-prescribed and nursing-prescribed interventions to minimize the complications of events.

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.

Description : A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, ... pink to cherry red to cynanotic and pale and is not a reliable diagnostic sign.

Last Answer : a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.

Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined “hot zone” for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were inhaled, bacteria will be killed immediately upon release from spores. Those who have symptoms of fever, cough, headache, chills, and especially evidence of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Description : Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined hot zone for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should ... . Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic

Last Answer : a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were ... of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement ... the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.

Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for this syndrome and therefore nursing plays a pivotal role in the team approach to assisting patients and families in dealing with the symptoms of progressive loss of muscle strength and significant fatigue. Nursing interventions are aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, ... and cold are most appropriate because these patients tend to have strong reactions to medications.

Last Answer : a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for ... loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Description : Three medications referred to as the ABC drugs' are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient ... on an empty stomach. Glatiramer acetate is administed by intramuscular injection once a week.

Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

Description : Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological ... to 72 hours. d) Recovery During the post-headache phase, patients may sleep for extended periods.

Last Answer : a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Description : A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ... and symptoms have stabilized with no indication of further progression of the hypoxic insult to the brain.

Last Answer : a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.