Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the
a) external soft tissue.
Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone
cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging
callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.
b) cartilage.
Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone
cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue. Cartilage is special
tissue at the ends of bone.
c) bursae.
Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone
cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue. The bursae is a fluidfilled sac found in connective tissue, usually in the area of joints.
d) fascia.
Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone
cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue. Fascia is fibrous
tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscles.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) external soft tissue.
Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone
cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging
callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.
by

Related questions

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Description : A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall. b) results in a pulling away of a ... to the skin or mucous membranes. A compound fracture involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes.

Last Answer : a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the ... growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

When looking at the cross section of the human tibia, one finds the RED marrow in the: a) medullary cavity b) cancellous bone c) periosteum d) epiphysis

Description : When looking at the cross section of the human tibia, one finds the RED marrow in the: a) medullary cavity b) cancellous bone c) periosteum d) epiphysis

Last Answer : ANSWER: A -- medullary cavity

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

Which of the following statements reflect current stem cell research? a) The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body’s entire supply of both red and white cells. The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body’s entire supply of both red and white cells. Stem cells comprise only a small portion of all types of bone marrow cells.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect current stem cell research? a) The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body's entire supply of ... an autoimmune component including systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, and multiple sclerosis.

Last Answer : a) The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body's entire supply of both red and white cells. The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes ... and white cells. Stem cells comprise only a small portion of all types of bone marrow cells.

Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Description : Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) ... the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Last Answer : a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients.

Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone ... tendon and its attachment. d) Oblique An oblique is a fracture occurring at an angle across the bone.

Last Answer : a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma. b) ... impacted. An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation. b ... . An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing? a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing? a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the ... ossification. Adequate immobilization is essential until there is x-ray evidence of bone formation with ossification.

Last Answer : a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and ... The pia mater is the innermost membrane of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord.

Last Answer : a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. ... d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

The lobe of the brain that contains the auditory receptive areas is the ____________ lobe. a) temporal The temporal lobe plays the most dominant role of any area of the cortex in cerebration.

Description : The lobe of the brain that contains the auditory receptive areas is the ____________ lobe. a) temporal The temporal lobe plays the most dominant role of any area of the cortex in ... thalamus and other cortical areas. d) occipital The occipital lobe is responsible for visual interpretation.

Last Answer : a) temporal The temporal lobe plays the most dominant role of any area of the cortex in cerebration.

Lengthening of long bones in humans occurs in a particular area of the bone. This area is called the: a) medullary canal b) cancellous bone c) periosteum (pron: per-E-ahs-tee-em) d) epiphysis (pron: eh-pif-eh-sis)

Description : Lengthening of long bones in humans occurs in a particular area of the bone. This area is called the: a) medullary canal b) cancellous bone c) periosteum (pron: per-E-ahs-tee-em) d) epiphysis (pron: eh-pif-eh-sis)

Last Answer : ANSWER: D -- Epiphysis

The most desirable outcome of endodontic treatment is, A. The healing of the alveolar bone B. The deposition of cementum at the apex C. Formation of fibrous capsule around the apex

Description : The most desirable outcome of endodontic treatment is, A. The healing of the alveolar bone B. The deposition of cementum at the apex C. Formation of fibrous capsule around the apex

Last Answer : B. The deposition of cementum at the apex

A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) have been proven correct by prospective trials? a. Preoperative TPN is beneficial in surgical patients with severe preoperative nutrition b. Postoperative TPN is of value following pancreatic resection c. Routine use of perioperative (including prior to the procedure) TPN is of benefit in patients undergoing hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Description : A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) ... hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Numerous clinical trials have failed to yield a consensus with regard to the efficacy of TPN in cancer patients. In 1991, a multicenter VA cooperative trial demonstrated ... patients receiving bone marrow transplantation has also been shown to be a valuable component of overall care

Accumulation of crystalline depositions in articular surfaces, bones, soft tissue, and cartilage is referred to as a) tophi. Tophi, when problematic, are surgically excised.

Description : Accumulation of crystalline depositions in articular surfaces, bones, soft tissue, and cartilage is referred to as a) tophi. Tophi, when problematic, are surgically excised. b) subchondral bone. Subchondral ... refers to the escape of fluid from the blood vessels or lymphatics into the joint cavity.

Last Answer : a) tophi. Tophi, when problematic, are surgically excised.

For union between stock and scion in grafting which one is the first to occur? (a) Formation of callus (b) Production of plasmodesmata (c) Differentiation of new vascular tissues (d) Regeneration of cortex and epidermis

Description : For union between stock and scion in grafting which one is the first to occur? (a) Formation of callus (b) Production of plasmodesmata (c) Differentiation of new vascular tissues (d) Regeneration of cortex and epidermis

Last Answer : (a) Formation of callus

Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and ... to the state of liver disease in which the liver continues to be able to function effectively.

Last Answer : a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

The term or disease associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum causing curvature of the penis when it is erect is known as a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

Description : The term or disease associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum causing curvature of the penis when it is erect is known as a) Peyronie's disease. ... refers to an uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis occurring from either neural or vascular causes.

Last Answer : a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). b) anorectal abscess. An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. c) anal fistula. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).

When matching bone marrow tissue is blood type a factor?

Description : When matching bone marrow tissue is blood type a factor?

Last Answer : Somewhat. Look at this site. Depends on your blood type, and the recipient

The tissue that forms the basal framework of lymphoid organs, bone marrow and liver are (a) lymphoid tissue (b) areolar tissue (c) reticular tissue (d) elastic tissue

Description : The tissue that forms the basal framework of lymphoid organs, bone marrow and liver are (a) lymphoid tissue (b) areolar tissue (c) reticular tissue (d) elastic tissue

Last Answer : Ans:(d)

In which bones can bone marrow chiefly be found? Is the bone marrow made of osseous tissue?

Description : In which bones can bone marrow chiefly be found? Is the bone marrow made of osseous tissue?

Last Answer : Bone marrow can mainly be found in the internal cavities of flat bones, like the vertebrae, the ribs, the scapulae, the sternum and the hips. The bone marrow is not made of osseous tissue, although it is a connective tissue as bone tissue is.

Which of the following is a secondary lymphatic tissue? a. thymus b. bone marrow c. spleen d. A-C are correct

Description : Which of the following is a secondary lymphatic tissue? a. thymus b. bone marrow c. spleen d. A-C are correct

Last Answer : c. spleen

For examination of diatoms sample should collect from (a). Bone marrow (b). Blood (c). Tissue (d). Epithelial cells

Description : For examination of diatoms sample should collect from (a). Bone marrow (b). Blood (c). Tissue (d). Epithelial cells 

Last Answer : Ans: (a). Bone marrow

Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Description : Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the ... In polymyalgia rheumatic, immunoglobulin is deposited in the walls of inflamed temporal arteries.

Last Answer : a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs when a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.

Description : Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs when a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue. b) ... In stage 5, the female demonstrates continued development of a larger breast with a single contour.

Last Answer : a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. b) drainage. Drainage at the site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. c) tissue sloughing. Sloughing of tissue at the site of injection does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. d) bruising. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Description : When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for ... site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Last Answer : a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.

An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement. b) Hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is an increase in size and bulk of tissue that does not result from an increased number of cells. c) Atrophy. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of a structure after having come to full maturity. d) Neoplasia. With neoplasia, the increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Description : An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply ... in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the a) distal radius. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand.

Description : A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the a) distal radius. A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand. b) elbow ... a fracture of the distal radius. d) clavicle. A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the distal radius.

Last Answer : a) distal radius. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand.

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Description : The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly ... following a basal skull fracture. The halo sign is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Last Answer : a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

Description : Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing's syndrome The patient ... individual with Hashimoto's disease demonstrates inflammation of the thyroid gland, resulting in hypothyroidism.

Last Answer : a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

A ligament is (a) A fibrous tissue that joins the muscle to bone (b) A type of amorphous gel that cements non movable joints together (c) A type of fibrous connective tissue that joins bones together at joints (d) Only formed to repair damaged muscle tissue

Description : A ligament is (a) A fibrous tissue that joins the muscle to bone (b) A type of amorphous gel that cements non movable joints together (c) A type of fibrous connective tissue that joins bones together at joints (d) Only formed to repair damaged muscle tissue

Last Answer : Ans:(c)

All of the following are requirements of mucoperiosteal flap except of: A. Base is wider than free margin B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum C. Base has an adequate blood supply D. Flap wider than bony defect that will be present at conclusion of operation E. Mucoperiosteum is carefully separated from bone

Description : All of the following are requirements of mucoperiosteal flap except of: A. Base is wider than free margin B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum C. Base has an adequate ... defect that will be present at conclusion of operation E. Mucoperiosteum is carefully separated from bone

Last Answer : B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum

A continuous passive motion (CPM) device applied after knee surgery a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

Description : A continuous passive motion (CPM) device applied after knee surgery a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery ... applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

Last Answer : a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Description : When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The ... poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention. b) primary intention healing. Primary or first intention healing is the method of healing in which wound edges are surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored without granulating.

Description : When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) ... of wound edges is delayed and integumentary continuity is restored by bringing apposing granulations together.

Last Answer : a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention.

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.