The prothrombin time a. assess the extrinsic pathway of the blood coagulation cascade b. is prolonged in patients with fat absorption c. is increased by warfarin d. all above

The prothrombin time
a. assess the extrinsic pathway of the blood coagulation cascade
b. is prolonged in patients with fat absorption
c. is increased by warfarin
d. all above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

all above
by

Related questions

The prothrombin time a. assess the extrinsic pathway of the blood coagulation cascade b. is prolonged in patients with fat absorption c. is increased by warfarin d. is increased by heparin

Description : The prothrombin time a. assess the extrinsic pathway of the blood coagulation cascade b. is prolonged in patients with fat absorption c. is increased by warfarin d. is increased by heparin

Last Answer : assess the extrinsic pathway of the blood coagulation cascade

Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning coagulation tests? a. Prothrombin time (PT) measures both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways and fibrinogen b. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) can be used to monitor both oral anticoagulation with Warfarin and intravenous anticoagulation with heparin c. Thrombin clotting time (TCT) is a measurement of the time it takes for exogenously administered thrombin to turn plasma fibrinogen into fibrin clot d. Whole blood activated clotting time (ACT) is a measurement of the ability of whole blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascu

Description : Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ... is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascular operations

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Coagulation tests include prothrombin time (PT), which measures the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of fibrinogen production and is the most common method for ... more while for peripheral vascular applications, values of 250 seconds or greater are considered appropriate

Which of the following is not true about warfarin, a. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction. b. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time. c. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly. d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, a. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction. b. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time. c. Heparin can be given subcutaneously ... rapidly. d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Last Answer : d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Which of the following is not true about warfarin, ** A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly D. It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin

Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, ** A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly D. It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin

Last Answer : B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time

The transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is indicated for which of the following reasons? A. Volume replacement. B. As a nutritional supplement. C. Specific coagulation factor deficiency with an abnormal prothrombin time (PT) and/or an abnormal activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. For the correction of abnormal PT secondary to warfarin therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease.

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Last Answer : Answer: CD DISCUSSION: The use of FFP as a volume expander is not indicated. There are currently several preparations (both crystalloid and colloid) that are equally effective and do not carry the infectious and ... vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C and protein S

All the following statements about obstructive jaundice are true except (A) Prothrombin time may be prolonged due to impaired absorption of vitamin K (B) Serum alkaline phosphatase may be raised due to increased release of the enzyme from liver cells (C) Bile salts may enter systemic circulation due to biliary obstruction (D) There is no defect in conjugation of bilirubin

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Last Answer : Answer : B

Which of the following statements about the coagulation cascade is/are true? A. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is the predominant pathway in vivo for hemostasis and coagulation. B. The intrinsic pathway beginning with the activation of factor XII is the predominant in vivo mechanism for activation of the coagulation cascade. C. Deficiencies of factor VIII and IX cause highly significant coagulation abnormalities. D. Deficiencies of factor XII cause severe clinical bleeding syndromes.

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Last Answer : Answer: AC DISCUSSION: Although it was previously held that two somewhat distinct pathways existed for the activation of the coagulation cascade, it is now recognized that the predominant ... bleeding. This further emphasizes the secondary role that the intrinsic pathway plays in coagulation

Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): A. Intrinsic pathway B. Extrinsic pathway C. Common pathway D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

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Last Answer : A. Intrinsic pathway

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy: A. Factor VII B. Factor IX C. Factor X D. Prothrombin

Description : Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy: A. Factor VII B. Factor IX C. Factor X D. Prothrombin

Last Answer : A. Factor VII

The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count (CBC), including platelet count. C. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Description : The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count ( ... (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: The evaluation of most patients scheduled for elective surgery who do not have a history of significant bleeding disorders is somewhat controversial. An adequate history and ... suspected of having qualitative defects of platelet function (e.g., von Willebrand's disease)

Which of the following would you classify as a pharmacodynamics interaction? a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia b) Antacids reduce the absorption of fluoroquinolones c) Increased bleeding due to cimetidine and warfarin d) Probenecid increases half-life of penicillin

Description : Which of the following would you classify as a pharmacodynamics interaction? a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia b) Antacids reduce the absorption ... Increased bleeding due to cimetidine and warfarin d) Probenecid increases half-life of penicillin

Last Answer : a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia

he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Description : he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and ... of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Last Answer : B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombi

Hemostasis and the cessation of bleeding require which of the following processes? A. Adherence of platelets to exposed subendothelial glycoproteins and collagen with subsequent aggregation of platelets and formation of a hemostatic plug. B. Interaction of tissue factor with factor VII circulating in the plasma. C. The production of thrombin via the coagulation cascade with conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. D. Cross-linking of fibrin by factor XIII.

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Last Answer : Answer: ABCD DISCUSSION: Hemostasis requires the interaction of platelets with the exposed subendothelial structures at the site of injury followed by aggregation of more platelets in that area. ... form a stable clot that incorporates the platelet plug and fibrin thrombus into a stable clot

Prothrombin time is prolonged by administering (A) Vitamin K (B) Dicoumarol (C) Calcium (D) Prothrombin

Description : Prothrombin time is prolonged by administering (A) Vitamin K (B) Dicoumarol (C) Calcium (D) Prothrombin

Last Answer : Answer : B

Prothrombin time is prolonged by administering (A) Vitamin K (B) Dicoumarol (C) Calcium (D) Prothrombin

Description : Prothrombin time is prolonged by administering (A) Vitamin K (B) Dicoumarol (C) Calcium (D) Prothrombin

Last Answer : Answer : A

Prothrombin time is prolonged in (A) Vitamin K deficiency (B) Liver damage (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

Description : Prothrombin time is prolonged in (A) Vitamin K deficiency (B) Liver damage (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

Last Answer : Answer : C

Prothrombin time remains prolonged even after parenterals administration of vitamin K in (A) Haemolytic jaundice (B) Liver damage (C) Biliary obstruction (D) Steatorrhoea

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Last Answer : Answer : B

Von Willebrand’s disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand’s disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is much more common in men b. A history of spontaneous bleeding is common c. Screening laboratory tests will include a prolonged aPTT with a normal prothrombin time d. Pre-treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23–50% of normal

Description : Von Willebrand's disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand's disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is ... -treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23-50% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Von Willebrand's factor is an adhesive protein that mediates platelet adhesion to collagen. In addition, it protects and prevents the rapid removal of factor VIII ... platelet aggregation responses to ristocetin. The most reliable source of Von Willebrand's factor is cryoprecipitate

Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the risk of heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. The prothrombin time should be observed if prolonged treatment is necessary c. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be maintained at approximately 1.5 times normal d. The serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the ... serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Last Answer : Answer: a, c In monitoring the effect of heparin, an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 1.5 control or a thrombin clotting time (TCT) of 2 times control reflects adequate ... system. Therefore the dose of heparin need not be adjusted in cases of liver or renal dysfunction

A 67-year-old male with advanced cholangiocarcinoma develops gram-negative sepsis. Excessive bleeding is noted around vascular catheters and from needle puncture sites. The diagnosis of disseminated intervascular coagulation (DIC) is considered. Which of the following laboratory test(s) is/are indicative of DIC? a. Decreased platelet count b. Decreased fibrinogen level c. Normal prothrombin time d. Elevated fibrin split products

Description : A 67-year-old male with advanced cholangiocarcinoma develops gram-negative sepsis. Excessive bleeding is noted around vascular catheters and from needle puncture sites. The diagnosis of disseminated ... b. Decreased fibrinogen level c. Normal prothrombin time d. Elevated fibrin split products

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the primary form of acute thrombosis. Causes of this syndrome include abruptio placenta, gram-positive and gram-negative sepsis, ... decline in the platelet count and fibrinogen level, along with an elevation of fibrin split products

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the immunoinflammatory response to shock? a. The anaphylactoxins, C3a and C5a, are products of activation of only the classical pathway of the compliment cascade b. Eicosanoids, such as prostaglandins are stored in platelets and endothelial cells and released in response to inflammatory stimuli c. Thromboxane and PGI2 have similar effects d. Platelet-activating factor can be released by both circulating and fixed tissue cells

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Last Answer : Answer: d Inflammatory mediators have recently been recognized as playing a significant role in the clinical manifestations and progression of shock and the development ... increased pulmonary vascular resistance, bronchoconstriction, peripheral vasodilatation, and increased vascular permeability

All of the following medications should not be used routinely in pregnant patients during the third trimester except (a) Acetaminophen (b) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (c) Warfarin (d) Lithium (e) Aspirin

Description : All of the following medications should not be used routinely in pregnant patients during the third trimester except (a) Acetaminophen (b) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (c) Warfarin (d) Lithium (e) Aspirin

Last Answer : Ans: A

The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

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Last Answer : B. Warfarin

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

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Extrinsic (OH) absorption peaks define three regions or windows of preferred operation. List the three windows of operation.

Description : Extrinsic (OH) absorption peaks define three regions or windows of preferred operation. List the three windows of operation.

Last Answer : The first, second, and third windows of operation are 850 nm, 1300 nm, and 1550 nm, respectively.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for ... platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII although 0% of cases are secondary to spontaneous mutation. The incidence of this abnormality is ... factor levels as low as 1% have been noted and patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding

The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Description : The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Last Answer : Ans: D

Bleeding time is increased in: a. massive blood transfusion b. vitamin K deficiency c. von Willebrand's disease d. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Description : Bleeding time is increased in: a. massive blood transfusion b. vitamin K deficiency c. von Willebrand's disease d. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Last Answer : disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts

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Last Answer : B. Increased peristalsis of gut

The bright-flash ERG: a. comes only from the cones b. is generated in a fully dark adapted eye by the highest intensity of light c. can be used to assess the overall retinal integrity in the presence of media opacity d. is abnormal in patients with age-related macular degeneration

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Last Answer : can be used to assess the overall retinal integrity in the presence of media opacity

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

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Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure

Description : Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure

Last Answer : Ans: C

Glucose overload results in increased CO 2 production. Which of the following statements are true? A. In patients with respiratory insufficiency, administration of glucose as a principal calorie source is contraindicated. B. In patients with pulmonary infection and sepsis, calorie support should consist of 95% fat and 5% glucose. C. In Askanazi's study, increased CO 2 production and difficulty in weaning was associated only with pronounced overfeeding. D. CO 2 production should be measured in most patients who are supported by respirators in intensive care units and are receiving nutritional support.

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Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Few papers have excited as much interest as that by Askanazi, Kinney, and co-workers, which demonstrated that glucose calories given to patients with severe respiratory ... the caloric requirement and glucose for the remainder, without much fear of excessive CO 2 production

Indications for the use of antiplatelet drugs include the following except: A. Secondary prophylaxis of myocardial infarction B. Unstable angina pectoris C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Stroke prevention in patients with transient ischaemic attacks

Description : Indications for the use of antiplatelet drugs include the following except: A. Secondary prophylaxis of myocardial infarction B. Unstable angina pectoris C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Stroke prevention in patients with transient ischaemic attacks

Last Answer : C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

When the temperature of an extrinsic semiconductor is increased, the pronounced effect is on……

Last Answer : When the temperature of an extrinsic semiconductor is increased, the pronounced effect is on Minority carriers.

Absorption of calcium is increased on a (A) High protein diet (B) Low protein diet (C) High fat diet (D) Low fat diet

Description : Absorption of calcium is increased on a (A) High protein diet (B) Low protein diet (C) High fat diet (D) Low fat diet

Last Answer : Answer : A

Vitamin D absorption is increased in (A) Acid pH of intestine (B) Alkaline pH of intestine (C) Impaired fat absorption (D) Contents of diet

Description : Vitamin D absorption is increased in (A) Acid pH of intestine (B) Alkaline pH of intestine (C) Impaired fat absorption (D) Contents of diet

Last Answer : Answer : A

Muddy water is treated with alum in purification process, it is termed as : (1) emulsification (2) absorption (3) adsorption (4) coagulation

Description : Muddy water is treated with alum in purification process, it is termed as : (1) emulsification (2) absorption (3) adsorption (4) coagulation

Last Answer : (4) coagulation Explanation: Natural and wastewater contain small particulates that are suspended in water forming a colloid. These particles carry the same charges, and repulsion prevents them from combining into larger particulates to settle.

Muddy water is treated with alum in purification process, itis termed as : (1) emulsification (2)absorption (3) adsorption (4) coagulation

Description : Muddy water is treated with alum in purification process, itis termed as : (1) emulsification (2)absorption (3) adsorption (4) coagulation

Last Answer : coagulation

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy

Patient with haemophilia presents which of the following findings:** A. Increased prothrombin time B. Increased bleeding time C. Increased clotting time

Description : Patient with haemophilia presents which of the following findings:** A. Increased prothrombin time B. Increased bleeding time C. Increased clotting time

Last Answer : A. Increased prothrombin time

Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.

Description : Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (c) ... epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.

Last Answer : (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

Value, used to assess the degree of spoilage (rancidity) of a fat or oil

Description : Value, used to assess the degree of spoilage (rancidity) of a fat or oil

Last Answer : Ans. Acid Number/Value

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve. b) Peroneal The peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes. c) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. d) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation ... The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Last Answer : a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve.

Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is: A. Extreme susceptibility to pain B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage C. Recurring oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

Description : A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental ... oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

Last Answer : B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.