Following acute haemorrhage, the following compensatory mechanisms occur: a. increased chemoreceptor discharge b. increased level of circulating angiotensin II c. vasoconstriction of renal efferent arterioles d. all above

Following acute haemorrhage, the following compensatory mechanisms occur:
a. increased chemoreceptor discharge
b. increased level of circulating angiotensin II
c. vasoconstriction of renal efferent arterioles
d. all above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

all above
by

Related questions

Which of the following statements about respiratory acidosis are true? A. Compensation occurs by a shift of chloride out of the red blood cells. B. Renal compensation occurs rapidly. C. Retention of bicarbonate and increased ammonia formation are normal compensatory mechanisms. D. Narcotic administration is an unusual cause of respiratory acidosis. E. The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid is less than 20:1.

Description : Which of the following statements about respiratory acidosis are true? A. Compensation occurs by a shift of chloride out of the red blood cells. B. Renal compensation occurs rapidly. C. Retention of ... of respiratory acidosis. E. The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid is less than 20:1.

Last Answer : Answer: CE DISCUSSION: Renal compensation for acute hypoventilation is relatively slow. Depression of the respiratory center by morphine can lead to respiratory acidosis. Renal retention of bicarbonate, ... into red cells combine to increase the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid to 20:1

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% of systemic vascular resistance b. Endogenous epinephrine is the primary contributor to systemic vascular resistance c. Increased pancreatic secretion of glucagon contributes to glucose intolerance associated with injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% ... injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The neuroendocrine response to shock attempts to achieve restoration of effective blood volume, mobilization of metabolic substrates, and maintenance of central ... . Angiotensin II is an extremely effective vasoconstrictor that further augments sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Agents that often cause vasoconstriction include all of the following except (a) Angiotensin II (b) Methysergide (c) PGF2a (d) Prostacyclin (e) Thromboxane

Description : Agents that often cause vasoconstriction include all of the following except (a) Angiotensin II (b) Methysergide (c) PGF2a (d) Prostacyclin (e) Thromboxane

Last Answer : Ans: D

Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle

Description : Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle

Last Answer : A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by: A. Direct vasoconstriction B. Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla C. Increasing central sympathetic tone D. All of the above

Description : Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by: A. Direct vasoconstriction B. Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla C. Increasing central sympathetic tone D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

True statements about the cerebral blood flow include: a. it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg b. the blood pressure is affected more by the PaO2 than PaCO2 c. hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction d. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure raises

Description : True statements about the cerebral blood flow include: a. it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg b. the blood pressure is affected more by the PaO2 than PaCO2 c. hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction d. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure raises

Last Answer : it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg

True statements about the cerebral blood flow include: a. it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg b. hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction c. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure raises d. all above

Description : True statements about the cerebral blood flow include: a. it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg b. hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction c. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure raises d. all above

Last Answer : all above

Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Description : Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle

Actions of oxytocin include the following except: A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts C. Contraction of mammary myoepithelium D. Release of prostaglandins from endometrium

Description : Actions of oxytocin include the following except: A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts C. Contraction of mammary myoepithelium D. Release of prostaglandins from endometrium

Last Answer : A. Vasoconstriction

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the cardiovascular response to shock? a. Changes in cardiac contractile function shift the Frank Starling curve up and down b. Venoconstriction from skeletal muscle is a significant contributor to the restoration of blood volume with shock c. Arterial vasoconstriction affects all vascular beds equally d. The total circulating blood volume is equally split between the arterial and venous system

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the cardiovascular response to shock? a. Changes in cardiac contractile function shift the Frank Starling curve up and down b. ... d. The total circulating blood volume is equally split between the arterial and venous system

Last Answer : Answer: a Central in the general cardiovascular response to shock is the action of the heart itself. The principle determinants of cardiac function in the normal heart are the volume of blood ... Blood flow to the skin is sacrificed early, followed by that to the kidneys and splanchnic viscera

Efferent arteriole emerging from glomerulus forms fine capillary network around renal tubule known as____ capillaries.

Description : Efferent arteriole emerging from glomerulus forms fine capillary network around renal tubule known as____ capillaries.

Last Answer : Efferent arteriole emerging from glomerulus forms fine capillary network around renal tubule known as____ capillaries.

Efferent arteriole emerging from glomerulus forms fine capillary network around renal tubule known as____ capillaries.

Description : Efferent arteriole emerging from glomerulus forms fine capillary network around renal tubule known as____ capillaries.

Last Answer : Efferent arteriole emerging from glomerulus forms fine capillary network around renal tubule known as____ capillaries.

The following are true about renal circulation: a. it accounts for 25% of the cardiac outputb. it is regulated predominantly by the autonomic nervous system c. in a normal 70 kg man, renal blood flow is about 1200ml/min d. macula densa cells are found in the efferent arteriolar wall

Description : The following are true about renal circulation: a. it accounts for 25% of the cardiac output b. it is regulated predominantly by the autonomic nervous system c. in a normal 70 kg man, renal blood flow is about 1200ml/min d. macula densa cells are found in the efferent arteriolar wall

Last Answer : macula densa cells are found in the efferent arteriolar wall

With regard to cerebral autoregulation: a. cerebral blood flow is constant over a diastolic blood pressure of 60 to 140 mmHg b. autoregulation is lost during the acute phase of subarachnoid haemorrhage c. it is impaired in hypercapnia d. it is impaired in hypoxia

Description : With regard to cerebral autoregulation: a. cerebral blood flow is constant over a diastolic blood pressure of 60 to 140 mmHg b. autoregulation is lost during the acute phase of subarachnoid haemorrhage c. it is impaired in hypercapnia d. it is impaired in hypoxia

Last Answer : it is impaired in hypoxia

Thrombo cytopenic purpura would complicate surgery by: A. Oedema B. Haemorrhage C. Acute infection

Description : Thrombo cytopenic purpura would complicate surgery by: A. Oedema B. Haemorrhage C. Acute infection

Last Answer : B. Haemorrhage

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with other infectious agents b. The circulatory derangements of septic shock precede the development of metabolic abnormalities c. Splanchnic vascular resistance falls in similar fashion to overall systemic vascular resistance d. Despite normal mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with ... mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Last Answer : Answer: d The clinical findings in sepsis and septic shock represent the host response to infection. Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae, and ... intravascular volume, exogenous volume resuscitation must be provided to restore venous return and ventricular filling

If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia

Description : If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia

Last Answer : Ans: D

Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported with both essential and nonessential amino acid therapy of patients in renal failure. B. Essential amino acids retard the rise of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) secondary to decreased urea appearance. C. Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose are a convenient form of therapy for hyperkalemia. D. Essential amino acids decrease BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.

Description : Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported ... BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose, as opposed to hypertonic dextrose alone, was reported by Abel and co-workers to be associated with a decreased mortality rate ... renal failure have not been carried out in sufficient numbers to yield answers to this question

Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis? (a) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH. (b) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone. (c) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction. (d) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells. (NEE

Description : Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis? (a) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH. (b) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to ... Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction. (d) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells. (NEE

Last Answer : (b) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone.

Prostaglandin synfhesis is increased by activating phospholipases by (A) Mepacrine (B) Angiotensin II (C) Glucocorticoids (D) Indomenthacin

Description : Prostaglandin synfhesis is increased by activating phospholipases by (A) Mepacrine (B) Angiotensin II (C) Glucocorticoids (D) Indomenthacin

Last Answer : Answer : B

initial regulation of BP in vascular system occur at : a- Arterioles b-Aorta and its branches c-Heart d-Capillaries e-Vein and venules

Description : initial regulation of BP in vascular system occur at : a- Arterioles b-Aorta and its branches c-Heart d-Capillaries e-Vein and venules

Last Answer : a- Arterioles

A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is: A. Extreme susceptibility to pain B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage C. Recurring oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

Description : A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental ... oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

Last Answer : B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage

Which is true for existing Economic and Industrial policies of Indian Government ? (i) FERA was abolished (ii) MRTP was abolished (iii) Cash compensatory support for export was abolished (iv) Industrial Licensing (except a few goods) was abolished A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) B. (i), (iii) and (iv) C. Only (iii) and (iv) D. Only (ii) and (iii)

Description : Which is true for existing Economic and Industrial policies of Indian Government ? (i) FERA was abolished (ii) MRTP was abolished (iii) Cash compensatory support for export was abolished (iv) Industrial Licensing (except a few ... (iii) and (iv) C. Only (iii) and (iv) D. Only (ii) and (iii)

Last Answer : C. Only (iii) and (iv)

During compensation of respiratory alkalosis, all the following changes occur except (A) Decreased secretion of hydrogen ions by renal tubules (B) Increased excretion of sodium in urine (C) Increased excretion of bicarbonate in urine (D) Increased excretion of ammonia in urine

Description : During compensation of respiratory alkalosis, all the following changes occur except (A) Decreased secretion of hydrogen ions by renal tubules (B) Increased excretion of sodium in urine (C) Increased excretion of bicarbonate in urine (D) Increased excretion of ammonia in urine

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The ... elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Last Answer : Answer: c, d, e Contributing pathophysiologic processes to the pulmonary manifestations of shock include the pulmonary component of the cardiovascular response, disruption of the normal ... injury from mediators of inflammation elaborated elsewhere, and from activated cellular blood elements

Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation

Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules for release after receptor mediated signaling b. Eicosanoids include prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins c. Eicosanoids generally have a plasma half-life measured in hours d. Physiologic responses to eicosanoids include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Description : Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules ... include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The eicosanoids are derived from arachidonic acid (eicosatetraenoic acid) and consist of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins. The eicosanoids are not ... nervous system d. Mononuclear phagocytes release a variety of proinflammatory cytokines and growth factors

Stimulation of the beta receptors give rise to: a. tachycardia b. increased myocardial contraction c. vasoconstriction of visceral vessels d. pupil dilatation

Description : Stimulation of the beta receptors give rise to: a. tachycardia b. increased myocardial contraction c. vasoconstriction of visceral vessels d. pupil dilatation

Last Answer : increased myocardial contraction

The vasopressin action(s) mediated by V2 receptors include(s): A. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells B. Increased urea permeability of collecting duct cells C. Vasoconstriction D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : The vasopressin action(s) mediated by V2 receptors include(s): A. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells B. Increased urea permeability of collecting duct cells C. Vasoconstriction D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B

The emetic action of morphine is due to (a) Irritation of gastrointestinal tract (b) Stimulation of cerebral cortex (c) Stimulation of medullary vomiting center (d) Stimulation of emetic chemoreceptor trigger zone (e) None of the above

Description : The emetic action of morphine is due to (a) Irritation of gastrointestinal tract (b) Stimulation of cerebral cortex (c) Stimulation of medullary vomiting center (d) Stimulation of emetic chemoreceptor trigger zone (e) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Ondansetron blocks emetogenic impulses at the following site(s): A. Vagal afferents in intestines B. Nucleus tractus solitarius C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone D. All of the above

Description : Ondansetron blocks emetogenic impulses at the following site(s): A. Vagal afferents in intestines B. Nucleus tractus solitarius C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Description : 3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Last Answer : A. Ondansetron

Secretion of mineralcorticoids is increased by (A) ACTH (B) Angiotensin (C) Hypokalaemia (D) Hypernatraemia

Description : Secretion of mineralcorticoids is increased by (A) ACTH (B) Angiotensin (C) Hypokalaemia (D) Hypernatraemia

Last Answer : Answer : B

Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.

Description : Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (c) ... epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.

Last Answer : (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

An important finding in glycinuria is (A) Excess excretion of oxalate in the urine (B) Deficiency of enzyme glycinase (C) Significantly increased serum glycine level (D) Defect in renal tubular reabsorption of glycine

Description : An important finding in glycinuria is (A) Excess excretion of oxalate in the urine (B) Deficiency of enzyme glycinase (C) Significantly increased serum glycine level (D) Defect in renal tubular reabsorption of glycine

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the outcome in patients with acute renal failure? a. Mortality for ischemic acute tubular necrosis without other organ failure is approximately 6% b. Multiple organ failure complicated with acute renal failure is associated with mortality ranging from 50% to 90% c. Recovery of renal function after six weeks is unlikely d. There is no difference in survival between oliguric and nonoliguric renal failure

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the outcome in patients with acute renal failure? a. Mortality for ischemic acute tubular necrosis without other organ failure is ... is unlikely d. There is no difference in survival between oliguric and nonoliguric renal failure

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Survival of patients with acute renal failure is a function of the successful treatment of the primary disease from which the renal failure was derived. The mortality ... is unlikely. Nonoliguric renal failure is usually limited in its extent and is almost always reversible

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating insult has prompted oliguric acute tubular necrosis, renal function tends to be maintained early in the course of MOFS c. Although hepatic dysfunction is common with MOFS, the GI tract plays little role in this process d. Intercurrent nosocomial infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a “second hit” to the patient

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating ... infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a second hit to the patient

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Pulmonary dysfunction typically arises early in the development of systemic inflammation and may represent mild relatively localized acute lung injury or it may be a prelude ... is marked by progressive rise in serum bilirubin levels after a latent period of several days

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

Altering the amino acid profile in total parenteral nutrition solutions can be of benefit in certain conditions. Which of the following conditions are associated with a benefit by supplementation with the amino acid type listed? a. Acute renal failure and essential amino acids b. Hepatic failure and aromatic amino acids c. Short gut syndrome and glutamine d. Chronic renal failure and essential amino acids

Description : Altering the amino acid profile in total parenteral nutrition solutions can be of benefit in certain conditions. Which of the following conditions are associated with a benefit by supplementation with the ... c. Short gut syndrome and glutamine d. Chronic renal failure and essential amino acids

Last Answer : Answer: a, c In a number of conditions, altering the amino acid profile of the total parenteral nutrition solution can be of benefit. TPN with amino acids of high biologic value ... Glutamine-enriched TPN partially attenuates villous atrophy and may be useful in treatment of short gut syndrome

Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension or circulatolry collapse (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia

Description : Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension ... (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia

Last Answer : Ans: E

A 73 year old male presented with an acute attack of gout in his left knee. What is the most likely underlying metabolic cause? 1) decreased renal excretion of uric acid 2) endogenous overproduction of uric acid 3) excessive dietary purine intake 4) lactic acidosis 5) starvation

Description : A 73 year old male presented with an acute attack of gout in his left knee. What is the most likely underlying metabolic cause? 1) decreased renal excretion of uric acid 2) endogenous overproduction of uric acid 3) excessive dietary purine intake 4) lactic acidosis 5) starvation

Last Answer : Answers-1 The aetiology of gout can broadly be divided into cases where there is underexcretion of urate via the kidney (90%) or endogenous overproduction of uric acid (10%) although in practical ... diuretic use. Excessive dietary intake of purines is unlikely to be the main cause in this case.

Which of the following is associated with Hyperuricaemia? 1) is usually due to an excess purine consumption 2) occurs in association with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia 3) in primary gout is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner 4) can be reduced with low dose aspirin therapy 5) can be treated with uricosuric drugs even in renal failure

Description : Which of the following is associated with Hyperuricaemia? 1) is usually due to an excess purine consumption 2) occurs in association with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia 3) in primary gout is inherited in ... with low dose aspirin therapy 5) can be treated with uricosuric drugs even in renal failure

Last Answer : Answers-2 Hyperuricaemia may be due to increased purine intake, urate production or reduced urate clearance, and is most commonly due to the latter. Therefore it can occur in association with enhanced ... . Many of the uricosuric drugs may be detrimental in renal failure and may not be effective.

The main advantage of ketorolac over aspirin is that ketorolac (a) Can be combined more safely with an opioid such as codeine (b) Can be obtained as an over-the-counter agent (c) Does not prolong the bleeding time (d) Is available in a parenteral formulation that can be injected intramuscularly or intravenously (e) Is less likely to cause acute renal failure in patients with some preexisting degree of renal impairment

Description : The main advantage of ketorolac over aspirin is that ketorolac (a) Can be combined more safely with an opioid such as codeine (b) Can be obtained as an over-the-counter agent (c) Does not ... (e) Is less likely to cause acute renal failure in patients with some preexisting degree of renal impairment

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic. ... inflammation of the urethra. d) Interstitial nephritis Interstitial nephritis is inflammation of the kidney.

Last Answer : a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.

The term used to describe total urine output of less than 400 mL in 24 hours is a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.

Description : The term used to describe total urine output of less than 400 mL in 24 hours is a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure. b) anuria. Anuria is used to ... Nocturia refers to awakening at night to urinate. d) dysuria. Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination.

Last Answer : a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.

The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It is contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is most appropriate: A. No regular medication. Treat attacks of acute gout when they occur with naproxen. B. Regular long-term treatment with naproxen C. Regular long-term treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Description : A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is ... treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Last Answer : D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the physiology of the microvascular system? a. Filtration of capillary fluid into the interstitial and the subsequent reabsorption is influenced by Starling’s law of ultrafiltration b. The most important variable controlling blood to a capillary bed is the length of the vessel c. Most of the resistance to systemic blood flow occurs at the arteriolar level d. Adrenergic vasoconstriction can arrest blood flow to an entire capillary bed

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the physiology of the microvascular system? a. Filtration of capillary fluid into the interstitial and the subsequent reabsorption is ... the arteriolar level d. Adrenergic vasoconstriction can arrest blood flow to an entire capillary bed

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Exchange of material between the vascular space and the cell of various tissues via the interstitial space is essential for organ viability and occurs at the ... contractions are potent enough that blood flow to entire capillary beds can be arrested by adrenergic vasoconstriction

Which of the following errors are not disclosed by Trial Balance ? (A) Compensatory Errors (B) Errors of Principle (C) Errors of Omission (D) All the three

Description : Which of the following errors are not disclosed by Trial Balance ? (A) Compensatory Errors (B) Errors of Principle (C) Errors of Omission (D) All the three

Last Answer : Answer: All the three

Travelling allowance may be considered as ------------- a. Special allowance b. Compensatory Allowance c. Both

Description : Travelling allowance may be considered as ------------- a. Special allowance b. Compensatory Allowance c. Both

Last Answer : b. Compensatory Allowance