Description : Each of the following produce edema EXCEPT: C A. Decreased plasma protein B. Depletion of sodium C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure D. None of these
Last Answer : Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
Description : Each of the following may contribute to formation of oedema EXCEPT C A. decreased plasma oncotic pressure increased intravascular hydrostatic pressure C. increased serum albumin D. decreased serum proteins
Last Answer : increased serum albumi
Description : Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to (A) Proteins (B) Chloride (C) Sodium (D) All of these
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : The edema of nephrotic syndrome is best classified as C A. Hypovolemic B. Obstructive C. Oncotic D. None of these
Last Answer : Oncoti
Description : Oncotic pressure of plasma is about (A) 10 mm of Hg (B) 15 mm of Hg (C) 25 mm of Hg (D) 50 mm of Hg
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : As a plasma expander, dextran has the following advantages except: A. It exerts oncotic pressure similar to plasma proteins B. It keeps plasma volume expanded for about 24 hours C. It is nonpyrogenic D. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood
Last Answer : D. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood
Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia
Last Answer : A. Histamine release
Description : The fall in blood pressure caused by d-tubocurarine is due to: A. Reduced venous return B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.
Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome
Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5-10 rules out ... sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output
Last Answer : Answer: b, c Although physical findings are often adequate to establish a diagnosis and institute management of cardiac failure, direct measurement of filling pressures of the right heart ( ... blood volume is normal, filling pressures are normal, and total body extracellular fluid is excessive
Description : Cyanosis caused by mitral insufficiency is typically associated with C A. Pulmonary vein thrombi B. Pulmonary artery emboli C. Pulmonary edema D. None of these
Last Answer : Pulmonary edema
Description : Hashimoto disease and Graves‘ disease are similar in that both a. Affect the thyroid gland. b. Affect the red blood cells. c. Are forms of cellular hypersensitivity? d. Are accompanied by histamine release.
Last Answer : b. Affect the red blood cells.
Description : Ketosis is associated with the disease: (A) Nephritis (B) Diabetes mellitus (C) Edema (D) Coronary artery diseases
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : Which of the following plays an important role in edema formation? C A. Arteriolar dilatation B. Decreased venous flow C. All of the above D. None of these
Last Answer : All of the above
Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release
Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression
Description : Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or ... C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness
Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery
Description : Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made ... clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.
Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Many different monitoring techniques may be used to assess the adequacy of therapy for shock. The pulmonary artery catheter can provide important hemodynamic and oxygen ... also be seen with liver disease, toxin ingestion, and hypermetabolic states not associated with shock
Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ischemia reperfusion injury? a. During ischemia, ATP degradation results in increased plasma and intracellular levels of ... immunization with antibodies to neutrophil adhesive complex lessen the ischemic/reperfusion microvascular injury
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d During the ischemia and hypoperfusion phase, degradation of ATP stores essential to maintain cell integrity and significant loss of diffusible ... either the neutrophil adhesive complex or the endothelial selectins dramatically lessens ischemia/reperfusion microvascular injury
Description : Oncotic pressure refers to a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin. b) the number of dissolved particles contained in a ... . Osmotic pressure is the amount of pressure needed to stop the flow of water by osmosis.
Last Answer : a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin.
Description : Sodium depletion occurs in excessive sweating, and cannot be corrected by drinking water alone. When uncorrected, it may lead to A. Increase of urea in blood B. Swelling of ankles and feet C. Muscle cramps, loss of energy, fatigue and faintness D. Renal failure
Last Answer : ANSWER: C
Description : All the following statements about ceruloplasmin are correct except (A) It is a copper-containing protein (B) It possesses oxidase activity (C) It is synthesised in intestinal mucosa (D) Its plasma level is decreased inWilson’s disease
Description : In Wilson’s disease (A) Copper fails to be excreted in the bile (B) Copper level in plasma is decreased (C) Ceruloplasmin level is increased (D) Intestinal absorption of copper is decreased
Description : The following are true about an action potential in a nerve fibre: a. it occurs when its membrane potential is hyperpolarized b. it is associated with a transient increase in membrane ... permeability to potassium d. it has an amplitude which varies directly to the strength of stimulus
Last Answer : there is a decreased in membrane permeability to potassium
Description : Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin ?
Last Answer : Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural ... Eosinophils B. Monocytes C. Neutrophils D. Basophils
Description : What are the rarest of WBCs that release histamine and exaggerate the inflammatory response?
Last Answer : Need answer
Description : What cells release histamine during allergic responses?
Description : Zinc is involved in storage and release of (A) Histamine (B) Acetylcholine (C) Epinephrine (D) Insulin
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : Answer: b, c, d Eosinophils constitute 1% to 3% of the leukocyte population of the bloodstream. They also reside in tissues and they exhibit phagocytic capabilities. They are less ... the cycle of events that result in recruitment and activation of inflammatory cells at sites of inflammation
Last Answer : Cellular injury from oxidants may be manifest by which of the following? a. Cell membrane lipid peroxidation b. DNA strand breaks c. Cytoskeletal disassembly d. ATP depletion
Description : Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin? (a) Eosinophils (b) Monocytes (c) Neutrophils (d) Basophils
Last Answer : d) Basophils
Description : Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column - II (A) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (B) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis (C) Neutrophils (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (D) Lymphocytes (iv) ... (iii) (c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Last Answer : (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Description : Cytotoxic T cells release which 2 toxic proteins as they fight target cells? a. histamine and heparin b. perforin and granzymes c. interleukin and interferon d. lysozymes and cytokines
Last Answer : b. perforin and granzymes
Description : By which of the following mechanism reduces Aspirin pain: A. It is anti inflammatory by the release of histamine B. It blocks the cyclo-oxygenase pathway.
Last Answer : B. It blocks the cyclo-oxygenase pathway.
Description : Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which naturally appearing product:CHECK A. Serotonin B. Histamine C. Enkephalins/endomorphins/endorphins/dynorphines
Last Answer : C. Enkephalins/endomorphins/endorphins/dynorphines
Description : Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis
Last Answer : C. Histamine release
Description : Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release
Last Answer : B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker
Description : Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release
Last Answer : C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection
Description : Select the skeletal muscle relaxant that is commonly used for endotracheal intubation despite causing histamine release, K+ efflux from muscles and cardiovascular changes: A. Pipecuroniun B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Cisatracurium
Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine
Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine
Last Answer : C. Morphine
Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla
Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation
Description : Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by (a) H1 antihistaminics alone (b) H2 ANTAgonists alone (c) Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists (d) None of the above
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by: A. H1 antihistaminics alone B. H2 antagonists alone C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists D. None of the above
Last Answer : C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists
Description : Which of the following groups of symptoms is most often associated with a patient who has right-sided heart failure? (a) Nocturia, rales, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (b) Paroxysmal ... distention (e) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, jugular venous distention, abdominal distention, shortness of breath
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Which characteristic sign of inflammation is NOT correctly associated with its cause? a. Edema—nerve damage b. Heat—blood warmth c. Swelling—fluid accumulation d. Redness—blood accumulation
Last Answer : d. Redness—blood accumulation
Description : All the following statements about renal tubular acidosis are correct except (A) Renal tubules may be unable to reabsorb bicarbonate (B) Renal tubules may be unable to secrete hydrogen ions (C) Plasma chloride is elevated (D) Anion gap is decreased
Description : The oedema of nephrotic syndrome is best classified as C A. Hypovolemic B. Obstructive C. Oncotic D. viraemic
Last Answer : Oncotic
Description : All the following statements about Wilson’s disease are correct except (A) It is a genetic disease (B) The defect involves copper-dependent P-type ATPase (C) Copper is deposited in liver, basal ganglia and around cornea (D) Plasma copper level is increased in it
Description : The transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is indicated for which of the following reasons? A. Volume replacement. B. As a nutritional supplement. C. Specific coagulation factor deficiency ... the correction of abnormal PT secondary to warfarin therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease.
Last Answer : Answer: CD DISCUSSION: The use of FFP as a volume expander is not indicated. There are currently several preparations (both crystalloid and colloid) that are equally effective and do not carry the infectious and ... vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C and protein S