Description : Instead of depressing, morphine stimulates: A. Vasomotor centre B. Edinger Westphal nucleus C. Temperature regulating centre D. Cough centre
Last Answer : B. Edinger Westphal nucleus
Description : Codeine acts as a cough sedative by (a) Producing mild nausea (b) Depressing bronchiolar secretions (c) Depressing pulmonary action (d) Depressing cough center (e) Paralyzing sensory nerves of bronchi
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Inhibition of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus: a. causes relaxation of the iris sphincter b. causes contraction of the iris dilator c. occurs in deep sleep d. occurs with narcotics
Last Answer : causes contraction of the iris dilator
Description : The following are true about pupillary reaction to light: a. it is impaired in damage of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus b. it is impaired in damage of the ciliary ganglion c. it is impaired in ... cervical ganglion d. the pupil does not respond to light with a frequency of greater than 5 H
Last Answer : the pupil does not respond to light with a frequency of greater than 5 H
Description : The light reflex involves the following structures: a. Edinger-Westphal nucleus b. ciliary ganglion c. lateral geniculate body d. oculomotor nerve
Last Answer : Edinger-Westphal nucleus
Description : The ciliary ganglion: a. is found between the optic nerve and the medial rectus b. contains sympathetic nerve that supplies the sphincter pupillae c. is a parasympathetic relay ganglion for fibers from ... nucleus d. contains sensory nerve e. has a motor nerve that goes to the inferior oblique
Last Answer : is a parasympathetic relay ganglion for fibers from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus
Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release
Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression
Description : Lower dose of naloxone is required to (a) Antagonise the actions of nalorphine (b) Antagonise the actions of pentazocine (c) Precipitate withdrawal in mildly morphine dependent subjects (d) Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects
Description : Which action of morphine is incompletely reversed by naloxone ? (a) Analgesia (b) Respiratory depression (c) Sedation (d) Miosis
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Pentazocine differs from morphine in that (a) It is inactive by the oral route (b) It does not produce physical dependence (c) It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect (d) Its action is not blocked by naloxone
Description : Morphine has high affinity for the following opioid receptor(s). (a) µ (Mu) (b) k (Kappa) (c) d (Delta) (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Which of the following opioids is more potent than morphine ? (a) Pethidine (b) Fentanyl (c) Dextropropoxyphene (d) Tramadol
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Morphine is contraindicated in head injury because (a) It does not relieve the pain of head injury (b) It can raise intracranial tension (c) It can cause constipation (d) It is liable to cause addiction
Description : Morphine dependence is characterized by (a) Marked drug seeking behavior (b) Physical dependence without psychic dependence (c) Physical as well as psychic dependence (d) Both (a) and (c)
Description : In a comatose patient suspected of poisoning, which of the following findings would be against the drug being morphine (a) Selegiline (b) Chlorgiline (c) Moclobemide (d) Tranylcypromine
Description : In man sedation caused by morphine is characterized by (a) Initial excitement (b) Little or no motor incoordination (c) Rise in seizure threshold (d) All of the above
Description : Morphine produces analgesia by acting at (a) Peripheral pain receptors (b) A spinal site (c) Suspraspinal sites (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : A very common side effect of morphine is (a) Allergic response (b) Blood dyscrasias (c) Constipation (d) Liver damage (e) Visceral pain
Description : The greatest threat from morphine poisoning is (a) Renal shutdown (b) Paralysis of spinal cord (c) Respiratory depression (d) Cardiovascular collapse (e) None of the above
Description : The emetic action of morphine is due to (a) Irritation of gastrointestinal tract (b) Stimulation of cerebral cortex (c) Stimulation of medullary vomiting center (d) Stimulation of emetic chemoreceptor trigger zone (e) None of the above
Description : Which of the following narcotics has the longest duration of effect? (a) Methadone (b) Controlled-release morphine (c) Levorphanol (d) Transdermal fentanyl (e) Dihydromorphone
Description : A drug that decreases blood pressure and has analgesic and spasmolytic effects when given intrathecally is (a) Atenolol (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Nitroprusside (e) Prazosin
Description : Opioid analgesics are either contraindicated or must be used with extreme caution in several clinical situations. For morphine, such situations do not include (a) Aqueous diffusion (b) Aqueous hydrolysis (c) Lipid diffusion (d) Pinocytosis or endocytosis (e) Special carrier transport
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Instead of being effective in hyperuricaemia following drug is contradictred in the treatment of gout (a) Indomethacin (b) Diclofenac (c) Piroxicam (d) Aspirin
Description : Decomposition of the acetyl salicylic acid at room temperature most likely would occur by (a) Oxidation of the ester (b) Reduction of the carboxylic acid (c) Hydrolysis of the ester
Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation
Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors
Description : Generally the earliest manifestation of salicylism is (a) Visual disturbance (b) Excitement (c) Hyperventillation (d) Tinnitus
Description : In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is (a) Acid – base and electrolytc disturbances (b) Hypersensitivity and idiosyncratic reactions (c) Gastric mucosal damage (d) Salicylism
Description : Aspirin reduces fever by (a) Decreasing heat production in the body (b) Enhancing cutaneous blood flow (c) Inducing sweating (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : Aspirin produces analgesia by (a) Preventing sensitization of peripheral pain receptors (b) Affecting gating of pain impulses at spinal level (c) Raising pain threshold at subcortical level (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is (a) It is not inhibited by indomethacin (b) It is inducible (c) It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa (d) It is found only in foetal tissues
Description : Following mediators are involved in acute inflammation except (a) Histamine (b) Leukotrienes (c) Interferons (d) Bradykinin
Description : Which of the following is an agonistantagonist type of opioid analgesic (a) Pethidine (b) Pentazocine (c) Fentanyl (d) Buprenorphine
Description : An opioid analgesic is preferred over aspirin like analgesic in the following condition. (a) Acute gout (b) Burn (c) Toothache (d) Neuralgia
Description : Select the analgesic which acts through opioids as well as additional spinal monoaminergic mechanisms. (a) Tramadol (b) Ethoheptazine (c) Dextropropoxyphene (d) Alfentanil
Description : Which of the following opioid analgesics is similar to codeine in pharmacological profile but is less constipating ? (a) Methadone (b) Buprenorphine (c) Butorphanol (d) Dextropropoxyphene
Description : Which of the following bones is affected more by glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis? (a) Femur (b) Humerus (c) Radius (d) Lumber vertebra
Description : The following adverse effect of corticosteroids is due to their mineralocorticoid action (a) Osteoporosis (b) Rise in blood pressure (c) Moon face (d) Increased susceptibility to infection
Description : Systemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of (a) Exfoliative dermatitis (b) Posterior uveitis (c) Acute rheumatic fever (d) Hodgkin’s disease
Description : For limiting cerebral edema due to brain tumour, the preferred corticosteroids are betamenthasone/dexamethasone because (a) They do not cause Na+ and water retention (b) They are more potent (c) They can be administered intravenously (d) They inhibit brain tumours
Description : Corticosteroid therapy is practically mandatory in the following condition. (a) Septic shock (b) Renal transplant (c) Rheumatoid arthritis (d) Ulcerative colitis
Description : Which of the following glucocorticoids has significant mineralocorticoid activity also ? (a) Hydrocortisone (b) Triamcinolone (c) Dexamethasone (d) Betamethasone
Description : Main effect of sulphinpyrazone in hyperuricaemia is (a) Suppress the symptoms (b) Promote the elimination of urate (c) prevent urate synthesis (d) All of the above
Description : Corticosteroids exert anti-inflammatory action by inhibiting the following enzyme (a) Cycloxygenase (b) Lipozygenase (c) Phospholipase - A (d) Phosphodiesterase
Description : Cervical priming with prostaglandin results in (a) Facilitation of sperm movement through cervical canal (b) Increased cervical tone (c) Softening of cervix (d) Increased cervical secretions
Description : The early pregnancy uterus is sensitive to the following oxytocic (a) Oxytocin (b) Methylergometrine (c) Prostaglandin F2a (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Aspirin in low doses produces longlasting inhibition (a) Platelets contain low quantity of COX (b) Platelets cannot synthesize fresh COX molecules (c) Platelets bind aspirin with high affinity (d) Platelet COX is inducible
Description : The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation (a) Prostacyclin (b) Prostaglandin E2 (c) Prostaglandin D2 (d) Thromboxane A2
Description : The prostanoid that consistently constricts blood vessels is (a) Prostaglandin E2 (b) Prostaglandin F2a (c) Thromboxane A2 (d) Prostacyclin
Description : Which of the following is an irreversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase ? (a) Aspirin (b) Phenylbutazone (c) Indomethacin (d) Piroxicam