Description : Fentanyl transdermal patches have been used postoperatively to provide transdermal analgesia. The most dangerous adverse effect of this mode of administration is (a) Cutaneous reactions (b) Diarrhea (c) Hypertension (d) Relaxation of skeletal muscle (e) Respiratory depression
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Which of the following opioids is more potent than morphine ? (a) Pethidine (b) Fentanyl (c) Dextropropoxyphene (d) Tramadol
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Indicate the opioid analgesic that is used as transdermal patch for chronic and cancer pain: A. Morphine B. Pentazocine C. Fentanyl D. Tramadol
Last Answer : The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above
Description : Which of the following is an agonistantagonist type of opioid analgesic (a) Pethidine (b) Pentazocine (c) Fentanyl (d) Buprenorphine
Description : Which of the following opioid analgesics is similar to codeine in pharmacological profile but is less constipating ? (a) Methadone (b) Buprenorphine (c) Butorphanol (d) Dextropropoxyphene
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A very common side effect of morphine is (a) Allergic response (b) Blood dyscrasias (c) Constipation (d) Liver damage (e) Visceral pain
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Pentazocine differs from morphine in that (a) It is inactive by the oral route (b) It does not produce physical dependence (c) It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect (d) Its action is not blocked by naloxone
Description : Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration ... morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.
Last Answer : a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV).
Description : The greatest threat from morphine poisoning is (a) Renal shutdown (b) Paralysis of spinal cord (c) Respiratory depression (d) Cardiovascular collapse (e) None of the above
Description : The emetic action of morphine is due to (a) Irritation of gastrointestinal tract (b) Stimulation of cerebral cortex (c) Stimulation of medullary vomiting center (d) Stimulation of emetic chemoreceptor trigger zone (e) None of the above
Description : A drug that decreases blood pressure and has analgesic and spasmolytic effects when given intrathecally is (a) Atenolol (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Nitroprusside (e) Prazosin
Description : Opioid analgesics are either contraindicated or must be used with extreme caution in several clinical situations. For morphine, such situations do not include (a) Aqueous diffusion (b) Aqueous hydrolysis (c) Lipid diffusion (d) Pinocytosis or endocytosis (e) Special carrier transport
Description : Lower dose of naloxone is required to (a) Antagonise the actions of nalorphine (b) Antagonise the actions of pentazocine (c) Precipitate withdrawal in mildly morphine dependent subjects (d) Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects
Description : Which action of morphine is incompletely reversed by naloxone ? (a) Analgesia (b) Respiratory depression (c) Sedation (d) Miosis
Description : Morphine has high affinity for the following opioid receptor(s). (a) µ (Mu) (b) k (Kappa) (c) d (Delta) (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Morphine is contraindicated in head injury because (a) It does not relieve the pain of head injury (b) It can raise intracranial tension (c) It can cause constipation (d) It is liable to cause addiction
Description : Morphine dependence is characterized by (a) Marked drug seeking behavior (b) Physical dependence without psychic dependence (c) Physical as well as psychic dependence (d) Both (a) and (c)
Description : In a comatose patient suspected of poisoning, which of the following findings would be against the drug being morphine (a) Selegiline (b) Chlorgiline (c) Moclobemide (d) Tranylcypromine
Description : Instead of depressing, morphine stimulates (a) Vasomotor centre (b) Edinger westphal nucleus (c) Temperature regulating centre (d) Cough centre
Description : In man sedation caused by morphine is characterized by (a) Initial excitement (b) Little or no motor incoordination (c) Rise in seizure threshold (d) All of the above
Description : Morphine produces analgesia by acting at (a) Peripheral pain receptors (b) A spinal site (c) Suspraspinal sites (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of cytokines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides. Prostaglandins involved in inflammatory processes are produced from arachidonic acid by (a) ... 2 (c) Glutathione - S - transferase (d) Lipoxygenase (e) Phospholipase A2
Description : Autacoids differ from hormones in that (a) Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states (b) Autacoids do not have a specific cell/ tissue of origin (c) Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : All of the following facts are true about non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) except (a) They are antipyretic (b) There is a celling effect to their analgesia (c) They can cause tolerance (d) They do not cause dependence (e) They are anti-inflammatory
Description : The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The following opioid is more potent than morphine: A. Pethidine B. Fentanyl C. Dextropropoxyphene D. Tramadol
Last Answer : B. Fentanyl
Description : The following adverse effect of corticosteroids is due to their mineralocorticoid action (a) Osteoporosis (b) Rise in blood pressure (c) Moon face (d) Increased susceptibility to infection
Description : Main effect of sulphinpyrazone in hyperuricaemia is (a) Suppress the symptoms (b) Promote the elimination of urate (c) prevent urate synthesis (d) All of the above
Description : Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate
Last Answer : B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate
Description : Which of the following durgs is a monamine oxidase inhibitor, but is used to treat hypertension? (a) Tranylcypromine (Parnate) (b) Reserpine (c) Propranolol (Inderal) (d) Pargyline (Eutonyl) (e) Imipramine (Tofranil)
Description : Codeine acts as a cough sedative by (a) Producing mild nausea (b) Depressing bronchiolar secretions (c) Depressing pulmonary action (d) Depressing cough center (e) Paralyzing sensory nerves of bronchi
Description : Which type of patient is most likely to hypersensitive to aspirin? (a) Intrinsic asthamatic (b) Extrinsic asthamatic (c) Chronic bronchitic (d) Patient with viral injection (e) Both (c) and (d)
Description : Colchicine is used mainly to treat (a) Gout (b) Arthiritis (c) Diabetes (d) Carcinomas (e) High blood pressure
Description : Potential adverse effects associated with aspirin include all of the following except (a) Gastrointestinal ulceration (b) Renal dysfunction (c) Enhanced methotrexate toxicity (d) Cardiac arrhythmias (e) Hypersensitivity asthma
Description : All of the following statements concerning an acute gouty arthritis attack are correct except (a) The diagonosis of gout is assured by a good therapeutic response to colchicines because no ... attack usually involves only one joint, most frequently the big toe (first metatarsophalangeal joint)
Description : Which of the following statements best describes the usual course of rheumatoid arthritis? (a) It is an acute exacerbation of joint pain treated with short-term anti-inflammatory therapy (b) It is ... characterized by a marked loss of calcium from the bones and a resultant thinning of the bones
Description : All of the following medications should not be used routinely in pregnant patients during the third trimester except (a) Acetaminophen (b) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (c) Warfarin (d) Lithium (e) Aspirin
Description : A 65-year-old is interested in taking ginkgo. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ginkgo? (a) Ginkgo is contraindicated in diabetes and pregnancy (b) There is a ... drug-herb interaction between ginkgo and phenelzine (e) Ginkgo is contraindicated in patients with gallstone pain
Description : A FDA – approved ingredient for protection against painful sensitivity of the teeth due to cold, heat, acids, sweets or contact is (a) Dicalcium phosphate (b) Sodium lauryl sulfate (c) 5% potassium nitrate (d) Zinc chloride (e) Calcium carbonate
Description : The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine
Description : In addition to their ability to decrease inflammatory prostaglandin synthesis, some non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may owe part of their effects to their ability to (a) Inhibit leukocyte migration (b ... (c) Stabilize lysosmal membranes (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Description : Which of the following medications would represent arthritis therapy that is least likely to cause gastric ulceration? (a) Aspirin (b) Acetaminophen (c) Piroxicam (d) Meclofenamate (e) Rofecoxib
Description : Patients taking chronic doses of nonselective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should periodically be screened for which of the following toxicities? (a) Nephrotoxicity (b) Peripheral neuropathy (c) Cardiotoxicity (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Description : Acute or chronic colchicine toxicity may be identified by which of the following signs/symptoms? (a) Alopecia (b) Blood dyscrasias (c) Severe gastrointestinal upset (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Description : Which of the following drugs may be effective in the treatment of gouty arthritis by acting by two separate and distinct mechanisms? (a) Allopurinol (b) Probenecid (c) Colchicine (d) Indomethacin (e) Sulfinpyrazone
Description : The action of aspirin that results in its greater efficacy as an antithrombotic (anti-platelet) drug is its ability to (a) Inhibit lipoxygenase as well as cyclooxygenase (b) Selectively inhibit ... I (c) Inhibit leukocyte migration (d) Promote uric acid excretion (e) Acetylate cyclooxygenase
Description : Which of the following compounds is most likely to lower circulating levels of leukotrienes? (a) Zileuton (b) Montelukast (c) Carprofen (d) Aspirin (e) Allopurinol
Description : Which of the following prostaglandin analogs is used specifically for the treatment of NSAID induced gastrointestinal ulcertation? (a) Alprostadil (b) Misoprostol (c) Carboprost (d) Dinoprostone (e) Epoprostenol
Description : Which of the following enzymes is ultimately responsible for the production of prostaglandins associated with inflammatory reactions? (a) Phospholipase (b) Lipoxygenase (c) Cyclooxygenase-I (d) Cyclooxygenase II (e) Xanthine oxidase
Description : A newborn was diagnosed as having a congenital abnormality that resulted in transposition of her great arteries. While preparing the infant for surgery, the medical team needed to keep the ductus arteriosus ... by infusing (a) Cortisol (b) Indomethacin (c) Ketorolac (d) Misoprostol (e) Tacrolimus