Description : If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion
Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism
Last Answer : B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis
Description : The most clear cut beneficial results are obtained in the use of anticoagulants for the following purpose: A. Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction B. Prevention of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism C. Cerebrovascular accident D. Retinal artery thrombosis
Last Answer : A. Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction
Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct
Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio
Description : Myocardial oxygen demand is increased by all of the following factors except (a) Exercise (b) Smoking (c) Cold temperatures (d) Isoproterenol (e) Propranolol
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Which of the following cyclotron produced radiopharmaceuticals is used for assessing regional myocardial perfusion as part of an exercise stress test? (a) Thallous chloride 201TI USP (b) Sodium iodide 123I (c) Gallium citrate 67Ga USP (d) Indium 111In pentetate (e) Cobalt 57Co cyanocobalamin
Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : In a patient of myocardial infarction, β adrenergic blockers are used with the following aim/aims: A. To reduce the incidence of reinfarction B. To prevent cardiac arrhythmias C. To limit size of the infarct D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril
Last Answer : A. Nifedipine
Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Description : Tolerance to nitroglycerin may be overcome by (a) Initially using the largest safe dose of the drug (b) Using other nitrites (c) Temporarily discontinuing the drug for one or two weeks (d) Use of higher doses (e) None of the above
Description : Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension ... (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia
Description : A 54-year-old woman with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of (a) Agranulocytosis (b) Gallstones (c) Lactic acidosis (d) Myopathy (e) Thyrotoxicosis
Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice for management of cardiac arrhythmias that occur in digitalis toxicity? (a) Amiodarone (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Sotalol (e) Prazosin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : A drug lacking vasodilator properties that is useful in angina is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) Metoprolol (c) NIfedipine (d) Nitroglycerin (e) Verapamil
Description : A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to ... ) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over - the - counter decongestants
Description : The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack (a) Digoxin (b) Furosemide (c) Enalapril (d) Amrinone
Description : Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s) (a) Xa (b) Ixa (c) Iia (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Description : In patients with chronic granulomatous disease which of the following agents increases the synthesis of tumor necrosis factor, leading to activation of phagocytosis? (a) Aldesleukin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Filgrastim (d) Infliximab (e) Interferon gamma
Description : When compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins have (a) Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa relative to Iia (thrombin) (b) Shorter half-lives (c) Dose – dependent renal clearance
Description : Helper T cells release all the following except (A) Interleukins (B) Colony stimulating factors (C) Perforins (D) Tumour necrosis factor
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : Helper T cells release (A) Interleukins (B) Colony stimulating factors (C) Tumour necrosis factor (D) All of these
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : Cytotoxic T cells release (A) Perforins (B) Interleukins (C) Colony stimulating factors (D) Tumour necrosis factor
Description : In order to be effective, Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA) must be performed within what time frame, beginning with arrival at the emergency department after diagnosis of myocardial ... during which streptokinase will not be used again in the same patient for acute MI.
Last Answer : a) 60 minutes The sixty minute interval is known as “door to balloon time” for performance of PTCA on a diagnosed MI patient.
Description : After being counseled about lifestyle and dietary changes, the patient was started on atorvastatin. During his treatment with atorvastatin, it is important to routinely monitor serum concentrations of (a) ... Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase (c) Platelets (d) Red blood cells (e) Uric acid
Description : Select the fibrinolytic drug(s) that is/are antigenic: A. Streptokinase B. Urokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
Last Answer : A. Streptokinase
Description : Which of the following statements are true of coronary artery anatomy? A. Right bundle branch block in acute anterior myocardial infarction suggests obstruction prior to the first septal branch of the left ... the left anterior descending coronary artery. E. The left main stem is about 4 cm long
Description : Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: a) ACTH. b) Growth hormone. c) Leutinising Hormone (LH). d) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). e) Opiate peptides.
Last Answer : c) Leutinising Hormone (LH).
Description : Which hormone causes acromegaly if present in abnormally high concentrations in an adult? A) growth hormone B) antidiuretic hormone C) gonadotropic hormones D) thyroid-stimulating hormone E) adrenocorticotropic hormone
Last Answer : A) growth hormone
Description : Which hormone stimulates the production of estrogen and progesterone? A) growth hormone B) antidiuretic hormone C) gonadotropic hormones D) thyroid-stimulating hormone E) adrenocorticotropic hormone
Last Answer : C) gonadotropic hormones
Description : Which hormone stimulates the production of cortisol? A) growth hormone B) antidiuretic hormone C) gonadotropic hormones D) thyroid-stimulating hormone E) adrenocorticotropic hormone
Last Answer : E) adrenocorticotropic hormone
Description : The part of the brain controlling the anterior pituitary gland secretions is the A) medulla. B) thalamus. C) cerebral cortex. D) hypothalamus. E) cerebellum. Answer: D ... B) antidiuretic hormone C) gonadotropic hormones D) thyroid-stimulating hormone E) adrenocorticotropic hormone
Last Answer : B) thalamus.
Description : Does anyone know about the GM-CSF protein?
Last Answer : Does anyone know about the GM-CSF protein? Yes, it is an internal hormonal stimulant for white blood cells. Is this something you can increase in your body through food? No I've read that having ... that even comes from food No so thought I'd ask you brain boxes here Wikipedia is your friend
Description : During Phase 2 of action potential in cardiac cell, depolarizing current through calcium channels is balanced by (a) Delayed rectifier potassium current (b) outward chloride channel (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Description : Assertion `:` Myocardial infarction oftern results from a sudden decrease in coronary blood supply resulting in decreased oxygen supply. Reason `:` Th
Last Answer : Assertion `:` Myocardial infarction oftern results from a sudden decrease in coronary blood supply ... If both Assertion & Reason are false.
Description : Most fatal thrombosis leading to myocardial infarction is of
Last Answer : Most fatal thrombosis leading to myocardial infarction is of A. Right circumflex coronary ... descending artery D. Left circumflex coronary artery
Description : Creatine phosphokinase isoenzyme is a marker for (A) Kidney disease (B) Liver disease (C) Myocardial infarction (D) None of these
Description : On which day following acute myocardial infarction the estimation of serum AST will be of greatest significance? (A) First day (B) Second day (C) Third day (D) Fourth day
Description : Serum AST activity is not characteristically elevated as the result of (A) Myocardial infarction (B) Passive congestion of liver (C) Muscular dystrophies (D) Peptic ulcer
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : On the third day following onset of acute myocardial infarction, which enzyme estimation will have the best predictive value? (A) Serum AST (B) Serum CK (C) Serum ALT (D) Serum LDH
Description : The slow moving fraction of LDH is typically increased in pancreas with (A) Cerebrovascular accidents (B) Acute myocardial infarction (C) Acute pancreatitis (D) Acute viral hepatits
Description : The isozyme CK-MB is specifically increased in the blood of patients who had (A) Skeletal muscle disease (B) Recent myocardial infarction (C) Infective hepatitis (D) Myxoedema
Description : Which of the following isoenzyme of lactate dehydrogenase is raised in serum in myocardial infarction: (A) LD1 (B) LD2 (C) LD1 and LD2 (D) LD5
Description : From the following myocardial infarction, the earliest serum enzyme to rise is (A) Creatine Kinase (B) GOT (C) GPT (D) LDH
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Which of the following serum enzyme rises in myocardial infarction: (A) Creatine kinase (B) GOT (C) LDH (D) All of these
Description : Serum lactate dehydrogenase rises in (A) Viral hepatitis (B) Myocardial infarction (C) Carcinomatosis (D) All of these
Description : LDH1 and LDH2 are elevated in (A) Myocardial infarction (B) Liver disease (C) Kidney disease (D) Brain disease