Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic inhibits action of aldosterone (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Of the following diuretic medications, which conserves potassium? a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic. b) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix causes loss of ... (Diuril) Diuril causes mild hypokalemia. d) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) Hygroton causes mild hypokalemia.
Last Answer : a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.
Description : The following diuretic acts on the luminal membrane of distal tubule and collecting ducts to inhibit electrogenic Na+ reabsorption so that K+ excretion is diminished and bicarbonate excretion is enhanced: A. Xipamide B. Isosorbide C. Triamterene D. Spironolactone
Last Answer : C. Triamterene
Description : Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener ? (a) Pinacidil (b) Hydralazine (c) Glibenclamide (d) Amiloride
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone
Description : Select the diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbance as a side effect on long-term use: A. Amiloride B. Spironolactone C. Metolazone D. Acetazolamide
Last Answer : B. Spironolactone
Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A diuretic which is an aldosterone antagonist is (A) Spironolactone (B) Ethacrynic acid (C) Acetazolamide (D) Chlorothiazide
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic: A. Triamterene B. Trimethoprim C. Tizanidine D. Trimetazidine
Last Answer : A. Triamterene
Description : Following loop diuretic is a phynoxy acetic acid derivative (a) Furosemide (b) Bumetanide (c) Ethacrynic acid (d) All of the above
Description : The oral absorption of following osmotic diuretic is negligible (a) Glycerin (b) Mannitol (c) Isosorbide (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene
Last Answer : B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus
Description : Triamterene differs from spironolactone in that: A. It has greater natriuretic action B. Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on presence of aldosterone C. It acts from the luminal membrane side of the distal tubular cells D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The dihydropyridines block the following type of calcium channels. (a) L-type voltage sensitive channels (b) T-type voltage sensitive channels (c) N-type voltage sensitive channels (d) Receptor operated calcium channels
Description : Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above
Description : Following drugs act on imidazoline receptor (a) Moxonidine (b) Dexmedetomidine (c) Tizanidine (d) All of the above
Description : Which of the following therapies would be most useful in the management of severe hypercalcemia? (a) Amiloride plus saline infusion (b) Furosemide plus saline infusion (c) Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion (d) Mannitol plus saline infusion (e) Spironolactone plus saline infusion
Description : Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone
Last Answer : B. Amiloride
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above
Description : The action of digitalis is enhanced by (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Chloride
Description : During Phase 2 of action potential in cardiac cell, depolarizing current through calcium channels is balanced by (a) Delayed rectifier potassium current (b) outward chloride channel (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Description : Spironolactone is an antagonist of (A) Cortisol (B) Hydrocortisone (C) Aldosterone (D) Testosterone
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride
Last Answer : C. Acetazolamide
Description : The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride
Last Answer : B. Furosemide
Description : Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide
Last Answer : C. Mannitol
Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly
Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily
Description : The following is not itself an efficacious diuretic, and is used only as an adjuvant/corrective to other diuretics: A. Acetazolamide B. Metolazone C. Spironolactone D. Indapamide
Last Answer : C. Spironolactone
Description : Which of the following has a ‘self limiting diuretic’ (action of the drug itself causing changes which limit further diuresis) action: A. Indapamide B. Spironolactone C. Xipamide D. Acetazolamide
Last Answer : D. Acetazolamide
Description : The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone
Description : Which of the following receptors does not span the cell membrane 7 times a. β-Adrenergic receptor b. Rhodopsin c. 5-HTic receptor d. Mineralocorticoid receptor
Last Answer : Mineralocorticoid receptor
Description : Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami
Last Answer : C. Captopril
Description : Which of the following would you classify as a pharmacodynamics interaction? a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia b) Antacids reduce the absorption ... Increased bleeding due to cimetidine and warfarin d) Probenecid increases half-life of penicillin
Last Answer : a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia
Description : Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener: A. Nicorandil B. Hydralazine C. Glibenclamide D. Amiloride
Last Answer : D. Amiloride
Description : Major lipid class present in chylomicrons is (a) Endogenous triglycerides (b) Cholesterol esters (c) Dietary triglycerides (d) All of the above
Description : Major beneficial effect of nitrates in classical angina is due to (a) Dilation of veins more than arteries (b) Increase in total coronary blood flow (c) An increase in the end diastolic size of the heart (d) An increase in the heart rate
Description : Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina
Description : Following statement is true about lidocaine (a) Reduce the slope of Phase 4 (b) Threshold excitability is not altered (c) Action potential is not affected (d) All of the above
Description : The agent given sublingually in an acute attack of angina pectoris is (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Amyl nitrite (c) Erythrital tetranitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
Description : Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation
Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility
Description : Cardiac glycosides are obtained from following plant source. (a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Strophanthus gratus (c) Ricinus commounts. (d) Atropa belladonna
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril
Description : Which of the following drugs is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility ? (a) Cyclandelate (b) Theophyline (c) Pentoxiphyline (d) Nicotinic acid
Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Dipyridamole (c) Propranolol (d) Diltiazem
Description : Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris because (a) They antagonize each other's side effects (b) Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium ... load (c) Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate
Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life
Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil
Description : In cardiac cells, adenosine (a) Causes shortening of action potential duration (b) Depolarization (c) Increase in normal automaticity (d) All of the above