Which of the following has a ‘self limiting diuretic’ (action of the drug itself causing changes which limit further diuresis) action: A. Indapamide B. Spironolactone C. Xipamide D. Acetazolamide

Which of the following has a ‘self limiting diuretic’
(action of the drug itself causing changes which limit
further diuresis) action:
A. Indapamide
B. Spironolactone
C. Xipamide
D. Acetazolamide
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Acetazolamide
by

Related questions

The following is not itself an efficacious diuretic, and is used only as an adjuvant/corrective to other diuretics: A. Acetazolamide B. Metolazone C. Spironolactone D. Indapamide

Description : The following is not itself an efficacious diuretic, and is used only as an adjuvant/corrective to other diuretics: A. Acetazolamide B. Metolazone C. Spironolactone D. Indapamide

Last Answer : C. Spironolactone

A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished and ascitis again appeared. Select the measure to reinduce diuresis: A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose to 100 mg twice daily B. Add acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily

Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : D. Furosemide

The following diuretic acts on the luminal membrane of distal tubule and collecting ducts to inhibit electrogenic Na+ reabsorption so that K+ excretion is diminished and bicarbonate excretion is enhanced: A. Xipamide B. Isosorbide C. Triamterene D. Spironolactone

Description : The following diuretic acts on the luminal membrane of distal tubule and collecting ducts to inhibit electrogenic Na+ reabsorption so that K+ excretion is diminished and bicarbonate excretion is enhanced: A. Xipamide B. Isosorbide C. Triamterene D. Spironolactone

Last Answer : C. Triamterene

Select the diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbance as a side effect on long-term use: A. Amiloride B. Spironolactone C. Metolazone D. Acetazolamide

Description : Select the diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbance as a side effect on long-term use: A. Amiloride B. Spironolactone C. Metolazone D. Acetazolamide

Last Answer : B. Spironolactone

The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

Description : The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

Last Answer : B. Furosemide

A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone

Description : A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone

Last Answer : Ans: A

A diuretic which is an aldosterone antagonist is (A) Spironolactone (B) Ethacrynic acid (C) Acetazolamide (D) Chlorothiazide

Description : A diuretic which is an aldosterone antagonist is (A) Spironolactone (B) Ethacrynic acid (C) Acetazolamide (D) Chlorothiazide

Last Answer : Answer : A

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Select the diuretic which is similar in efficacy and pattern of electrolyte excretion to furosemide, but is 40 times more potent dose to dose: A. Piretanide B. Bumetanide C. Xipamide D. Metolazone

Description : Select the diuretic which is similar in efficacy and pattern of electrolyte excretion to furosemide, but is 40 times more potent dose to dose: A. Piretanide B. Bumetanide C. Xipamide D. Metolazone

Last Answer : B. Bumetanide

At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride

Description : At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride

Last Answer : C. Acetazolamide

The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Description : The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Last Answer : B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic

Following potassium sparing diuretic inhibits action of aldosterone (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above

Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic inhibits action of aldosterone (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Description : Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Last Answer : C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload.

Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide

Last Answer : C. Mannitol

Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide

Last Answer : C. Mannitol

The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in severe heart failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Description : The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in ... by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

The following drug is used for short-term control of emergency heart failure, but not for long-term treatment of congestive heart failure: A. Digoxin B. Ramipril C. Dobutamine D. Spironolactone

Description : The following drug is used for short-term control of emergency heart failure, but not for long-term treatment of congestive heart failure: A. Digoxin B. Ramipril C. Dobutamine D. Spironolactone

Last Answer : C. Dobutamine

The following drug can relieve symptoms of CHF but does not retard disease progression or prolong survival: A. Digoxin B. Carvedilol C. Spironolactone D. Ramipril

Description : The following drug can relieve symptoms of CHF but does not retard disease progression or prolong survival: A. Digoxin B. Carvedilol C. Spironolactone D. Ramipril

Last Answer : A. Digoxin

Select the drug that can help restore cardiac performance as well as prolong survival in CHF patients: A. Spironolactone B. Furosemide C. Dobutamine D. Metoprolol

Description : Select the drug that can help restore cardiac performance as well as prolong survival in CHF patients: A. Spironolactone B. Furosemide C. Dobutamine D. Metoprolol

Last Answer : D. Metoprolol

Triamterene differs from spironolactone in that: A. It has greater natriuretic action B. Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on presence of aldosterone C. It acts from the luminal membrane side of the distal tubular cells D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Triamterene differs from spironolactone in that: A. It has greater natriuretic action B. Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on presence of aldosterone C. It acts from the luminal membrane side of the distal tubular cells D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Description : ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis

The Na+-Cl– symport in the early distal convoluted tubule of the kidney is inhibited by: A. Thiazides B. Metolazone C. Xipamide D. All of the above

Description : The Na+-Cl– symport in the early distal convoluted tubule of the kidney is inhibited by: A. Thiazides B. Metolazone C. Xipamide D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Following potassium sparing diuretic is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above

Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

Of the following diuretic medications, which conserves potassium? a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic. b) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix causes loss of potassium from the body. c) Chlorothiazide (Diuril) Diuril causes mild hypokalemia. d) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) Hygroton causes mild hypokalemia.

Description : Of the following diuretic medications, which conserves potassium? a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic. b) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix causes loss of ... (Diuril) Diuril causes mild hypokalemia. d) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) Hygroton causes mild hypokalemia.

Last Answer : a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of pulmonary interstitial edema? a. Diuresis and blood transfusion is a valuable step b. Salt-poor albumin leaks through the capillaries and worsens the condition c. Mannitol is contraindicated as a diuretic in this clinical situation d. Isoproterenol is a poor choice as an ionotropic agent

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of pulmonary interstitial edema? a. Diuresis and blood transfusion is a valuable step b. Salt-poor albumin leaks through the ... a diuretic in this clinical situation d. Isoproterenol is a poor choice as an ionotropic agent

Last Answer : Answer: a Treatment of pulmonary edema has two important goals, the first is to improve oxygenation if it is impaired, and the second is to minimize fibrosis and bacterial infection, which often ... leaks out , the short term effects of expanding blood volume and decrease in edema will appear

The following antihypertensive is used topically to treat alopacia areata: A. Hydralazine B. Prazosin C. Minoxidil D. Indapamide

Description : The following antihypertensive is used topically to treat alopacia areata: A. Hydralazine B. Prazosin C. Minoxidil D. Indapamide

Last Answer : C. Minoxidil

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive

Description : Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive

Last Answer : C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop of Henle. C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop ... C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Last Answer : A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions

Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar pattern of haemodynamic action are superior to those with dissimilar pattern C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Description : Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar ... should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Last Answer : C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined

A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low. Which of the following lines of action is warranted: A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor B. Continue all medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor

he current therapeutic indication of acetazolamide is: A. Congestive heart failure B. Renal insufficiency C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Glaucoma

Description : he current therapeutic indication of acetazolamide is: A. Congestive heart failure B. Renal insufficiency C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Glaucoma

Last Answer : D. Glaucoma

The following is a competitive type of enzyme inhibitor: A. Acetazolamide B. Disulfiram C. Physostigmine D. Theophylline

Description : The following is a competitive type of enzyme inhibitor: A. Acetazolamide B. Disulfiram C. Physostigmine D. Theophylline

Last Answer : C. Physostigmine

Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Description : Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Last Answer : B. Amiloride

Concurrent administration of aspirin interacts unfavourably with the following drugs except: A. Furosemide B. Spironolactone C. Codeine D. Methotrexate

Description : Concurrent administration of aspirin interacts unfavourably with the following drugs except: A. Furosemide B. Spironolactone C. Codeine D. Methotrexate

Last Answer : C. Codeine

Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following effects except: A. Flushing B. Tachycardia C. Diuresis D. Rise in body temperature

Description : Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following effects except: A. Flushing B. Tachycardia C. Diuresis D. Rise in body temperature

Last Answer : D. Rise in body temperature

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

Select the skeletal muscle relaxant that is commonly used for endotracheal intubation despite causing histamine release, K+ efflux from muscles and cardiovascular changes: A. Pipecuroniun B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Cisatracurium

Description : Select the skeletal muscle relaxant that is commonly used for endotracheal intubation despite causing histamine release, K+ efflux from muscles and cardiovascular changes: A. Pipecuroniun B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Cisatracurium

Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine

The following antiamoebic drug should not be used in children because of risk of causing blindness: A. Quiniodochlor B. Diloxanide furoate C. Tinidazole D. Secnidazole

Description : The following antiamoebic drug should not be used in children because of risk of causing blindness: A. Quiniodochlor B. Diloxanide furoate C. Tinidazole D. Secnidazole

Last Answer : A. Quiniodochlor

The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide

Description : The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Cisapride

Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Description : Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Last Answer : C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin

Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle

Description : Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle

Last Answer : A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic: A. Triamterene B. Trimethoprim C. Tizanidine D. Trimetazidine

Description : Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic: A. Triamterene B. Trimethoprim C. Tizanidine D. Trimetazidine

Last Answer : A. Triamterene

Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency

The following diuretic reduces positive free water clearance but does not affect negative free water clearance: A. Hydroflumethiazide B. Furosemide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Mannitol

Description : The following diuretic reduces positive free water clearance but does not affect negative free water clearance: A. Hydroflumethiazide B. Furosemide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Mannitol

Last Answer : A. Hydroflumethiazide

Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic, it is practically not used because: A. It is more ototoxic B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow dose range D. All of the above

Description : Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic, it is practically not used because: A. It is more ototoxic B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow dose range D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema

Description : Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema

Last Answer : C. Cerebral edema