Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate? (a) It is bacteriostatic (b) It binds to PBPs (c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase (d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability (e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use

Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate? (a) It is bacteriostatic (b) It binds to PBPs (c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase (d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability (e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use
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A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy? (a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h (b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h (c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h (d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h (e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h

Description : A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy? (a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h (b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h (c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h (d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h (e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h

Last Answer : Ans: A

Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudo membranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Vancomycin (d) Clindamycin

Description : Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudo membranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Vancomycin (d) Clindamycin

Last Answer : Ans: D

Oral vancomycin is indicated in the following condition: A. Appendicitis B. Campylobacter diarrhoea C. Bacillary dysentery D. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Description : Oral vancomycin is indicated in the following condition: A. Appendicitis B. Campylobacter diarrhoea C. Bacillary dysentery D. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Last Answer : D. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle (b) Derived from the bark of yew trees (c) Myelosuppression is dose-limiting (d) Peripheral neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

Description : Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the ... neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

Last Answer : Ans: E

Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli

Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli

Last Answer : Ans: A

Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because (a) They produce large quantities of penicillinase (b) They do not utilize D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is inhibited by benzyl penicillin (c) Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multiplayer cell wall of gram-negative bacteria (d) Both (a) and (b)

Description : Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because (a) They produce large quantities of penicillinase (b) They do not utilize D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is ... lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multiplayer cell wall of gram-negative bacteria (d) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism ? (a) Bactericidal + Bactericidal (b) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism (c) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism (d) Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic

Description : Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism ? (a) Bactericidal + Bactericidal (b) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism (c) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism (d) Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic

Last Answer : Ans: B

What is break point concentration of an antibiotic ? (a) Concentration at which the antibiotic lyses the bacteria (b) Concentration of the antibiotic which demarks between sensitive and resistant bacteria (c) Concentration of the antibiotic which overcomes bacterial resistance (d) Concentration at which a bacteriostatic antibiotic becomes bactericidal

Description : What is break point concentration of an antibiotic ? (a) Concentration at which the antibiotic lyses the bacteria (b) Concentration of the antibiotic which demarks between sensitive ... which overcomes bacterial resistance (d) Concentration at which a bacteriostatic antibiotic becomes bactericidal

Last Answer : Ans: B

This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in penicillinallergic patients. Its activity against gramnegative rods is enhanced if it is given in combination with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin

Description : This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in ... with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellular(MAI)? (a) Vancomycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Erythromycin base (d) Troleandomycin (e) Erythromycin estolate

Description : Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellular(MAI)? (a) Vancomycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Erythromycin base (d) Troleandomycin (e) Erythromycin estolate

Last Answer : Ans: B

In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol (b) Penicillin G, chlormphenicol, tetracycline, vancomycin (c) Imipenem, tetracycline, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs does not require supplementation of dosage following hemodialysis? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Ganciclovir (d) Tobramycin (e) Vancomycin

Description : Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs does not require supplementation of dosage following hemodialysis? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Ganciclovir (d) Tobramycin (e) Vancomycin

Last Answer : Ans: E

In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin

Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin

Last Answer : Ans: D

A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. The best approach would be treatment with (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Vancomycin

Description : A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. ... /clavulanate (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Vancomycin

Last Answer : Ans: E

The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Last Answer : Ans: B

An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin

Description : An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Spectinomycin is an aminoglycoside-like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of (a) Gram-negative bacillary septicemia (b) Tuberculosis (c) Penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections (d) Syphilis (e) Gram-negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms

Description : Spectinomycin is an aminoglycoside-like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of (a) Gram-negative bacillary septicemia (b) Tuberculosis (c) Penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections (d) Syphilis (e) Gram-negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) It is a fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis

Description : Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) ... fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis

Last Answer : Ans: E

Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Vancomycin D. Clindamycin

Description : Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Vancomycin D. Clindamycin

Last Answer : D. Clindamycin

Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Description : Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Last Answer : C. Metronidazole

All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate

Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate

Last Answer : Ans: B

Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin

Description : Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin

Last Answer : Ans: C

The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is (a) Nausea and vomiting (b) Loose motions (c) Constipation (d) Urticaria

Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is (a) Nausea and vomiting (b) Loose motions (c) Constipation (d) Urticaria

Last Answer : Ans: B

If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then (a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected (b) He can be given ampicillin safely (c) He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely (d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then (a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ( ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely (d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Last Answer : Ans: D

A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline

Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline

Last Answer : Ans: A

Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral bioavailability C. It is the longest acting and the safest glycoside D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Description : Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral ... so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Last Answer : D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)

Description : An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: C

Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning antimicrobial classes? a. Penicillins and cephalosporins share the compound structure of a b-lactam ring which binds to bacterial division plate proteins b. Tetracyclines and macrolides such as erythromycin inhibit bacterial ribosomal activity and therefore protein synthesis c. Aminoglycosides act in a similar fashion to tetracyclines and therefore are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Description : Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following ... are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Penicillins, cephalosporins, and monobactams possess a b-lactam ring of some type and act to bind bacterial division plate proteins, thus inhibiting cell wall ... act in different mechanisms to inhibit protein synthesis, therefore two agents in combination act synergistically

An advantge of betamethasone acetate over betamethasone sodium phosphate is (a) Fewer allergic reactions (b) Prompter action (c) More sustained action (d) Greater solubility (e) There is no advantage

Description : An advantge of betamethasone acetate over betamethasone sodium phosphate is (a) Fewer allergic reactions (b) Prompter action (c) More sustained action (d) Greater solubility (e) There is no advantage

Last Answer : Ans: C

Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b) Is active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin (c) Is more active against Mycobacterium avium complex (d) Does not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

Last Answer : Ans: C

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above

Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Hepatitits with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin (a) Erythromycin base (b) Erythromycin stearate (c) Erythromycin estolate (d) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Description : Hepatitits with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin (a) Erythromycin base (b) Erythromycin stearate (c) Erythromycin estolate (d) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use

Description : Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which one of the following statements about “one daily” dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal insufficiency (c) Less nursing time is required (d) It is often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem

Description : Which one of the following statements about one daily dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal ... often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem

Last Answer : Ans: B

All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except (a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii (b) it may be administered intramuscularly, intravenously or by inhalation (c) it has no clinically significant effect on serum glucose (d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis

Description : All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except (a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii (b) it may be ... clinically significant effect on serum glucose (d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis

Last Answer : Ans: C

To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have (a) High oral bioavailability (b) Low oral bioavailability (c) Additional bronchodilator activity (d) Prodrug character

Description : To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have (a) High oral bioavailability (b) Low oral bioavailability (c) Additional bronchodilator activity (d) Prodrug character

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life

Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life

Last Answer : Ans: C

he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability due to high first pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood–CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules

Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life

Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life

Last Answer : A. Generation of an active metabolit

The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

15.45 To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have: A. High oral bioavailability B. Low oral bioavailability C. Additional bronchodilator activity

Description : 15.45 To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have: A. High oral bioavailability B. Low oral bioavailability C. Additional bronchodilator activity

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

Drugs which undergo high degree of first-pass metabolism in liver: A. Have low oral bioavailability B. Are excreted primarily in bile C. Are contraindicated in liver disease D. Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination

Description : Drugs which undergo high degree of first-pass metabolism in liver: A. Have low oral bioavailability B. Are excreted primarily in bile C. Are contraindicated in liver disease D. Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination

Last Answer : A. Have low oral bioavailability

Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug: A. Is freely water soluble B. Is completely absorbed C. Is incompletely absorbed D. Undergoes little first-pass metabolism

Description : Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug: A. Is freely water soluble B. Is completely absorbed C. Is incompletely absorbed D. Undergoes little first-pass metabolism

Last Answer : C. Is incompletely absorbed

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by: A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen B. Altering gut motility C. Altering gut flora D. Damaging gut mucosa

Last Answer : C. Altering gut flora

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to ... in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Last Answer : A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form

The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action

Description : The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action

Last Answer : A. High oral bioavailability