After receiving a hormonal shot, an asthma patient will get relief in exhaling the air. The hormone injected will be

After receiving a hormonal shot, an asthma patient will get relief in exhaling the air. The hormone injected will be
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After receiving a hormonal shot, an asthma patient will get relief in exhaling the air. The ... Oxytocin B. Adrenaline C. Insulin D. Thyroxine
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Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug reaction? a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic. b) A 22 year old patient with asthma receiving prescriptions for inhalers to relieve and prevent their asthma. c) A 48 year old patient who has hypertension and receives a prescription for an ACE Inhibitor. d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug reaction? a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic. b) A 22 year old patient ... ACE Inhibitor. d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic. 

Last Answer : d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic. 

A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland b. ACTH stimulation results in elevation of serum cortisol levels for up to a week after the operation c. An increased secretion of aldosterone and ADH may contribute to postoperative fluid retention d. An increase in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Description : A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic ... in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, c One of the earliest consequence of a surgical procedure is the rise in levels of circulating cortisol that occur in response to a sudden outpouring of ACTH ... hepatic glucose production, and, with other hormones (epinephrine and glucocorticoids), gluconeogenesis is maintained

What is meant by breathing and exhaling ?

Description : What is meant by breathing and exhaling ?

Last Answer : : Respiration: - The stage of respiration in which more oxygenated air is absorbed into the animal body through the respiratory organs is called respiration. Respiration: - The stage of ... carbon dioxide-containing air is released from the respiratory organs of the animal is called respiration.

What is the process called of inhaling and exhaling?

Description : What is the process called of inhaling and exhaling?

Last Answer : Respiration or breathing.respiration is the more scientific term.The scientific formula for respiration isO2+C6H12O6(glucose)=CO2+H2O

Which musical instrument is played by both exhaling and inhaling?

Description : Which musical instrument is played by both exhaling and inhaling?

Last Answer : Harmonica (or mouth organ)

Which hormone is injected into cow and buffalow during milking? -General Knowledge

Description : Which hormone is injected into cow and buffalow during milking? -General Knowledge

Last Answer : answer:

Which hormone is injected into cow and buffalow during milking? -General Knowledge

Description : Which hormone is injected into cow and buffalow during milking? -General Knowledge

Last Answer : answer:

While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which of the following drugs can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP (a) Noradrenaline (b) Isoprenaline (c) Mephentermine (d) Isoxsuprine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which of the following drugs can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP (a) Noradrenaline (b) Isoprenaline (c) Mephentermine (d) Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : Ans: C

If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then (a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected (b) He can be given ampicillin safely (c) He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely (d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then (a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ( ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely (d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Last Answer : Ans: D

An intradermal penicillin sensitivity test has been performed on a patient and found to be negative. This indicates that: A. Penicillin antibodies are not present in his body B. He will not develop any reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected C. He will not develop anaphylactic reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected D. He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Description : An intradermal penicillin sensitivity test has been performed on a patient and found to be negative. This indicates that: A. Penicillin antibodies are not present in his body B. He will ... He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Last Answer : D. He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then: A. He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected B. He can be given ampicillin safely C. He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then: A. He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Last Answer : D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

A patient returning from dinner party meets with road accident and has to be urgently operated upon under general anaesthesia. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to hasten his gastric emptying: A. Methylpolysiloxane B. Promethazine C. Metoclopramide D. Apomorphine

Description : A patient returning from dinner party meets with road accident and has to be urgently operated upon under general anaesthesia. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to hasten his gastric emptying: A. Methylpolysiloxane B. Promethazine C. Metoclopramide D. Apomorphine

Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide

The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors

Description : The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors

Last Answer : D. All of the above factors

While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

What is informed consent in a clinical trial? a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses c) Fake treatment d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures

Description : What is informed consent in a clinical trial? a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses c) Fake treatment d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures

Last Answer : d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures 

The gas mixture used to provide relief for the asthma patients in their respiratory problems is

Description : The gas mixture used to provide relief for the asthma patients in their respiratory problems is

Last Answer : The gas mixture used to provide relief for the asthma patients in their respiratory problems is A. `Ne+O_(2)` B. `Xe ... ` C. `Ar+O_(2)` D. `He+O_(2)`

Is ephedrine a good choice for the relief of occasional asthma symptoms?

Description : Is ephedrine a good choice for the relief of occasional asthma symptoms?

Last Answer : Ephedrine is a good choice for the relief of occasional Asthma symptoms. It has right ingredients to smooth over asthma in a few hours after using it.

What is the most commonly prescribed medication for asthma relief?

Description : What is the most commonly prescribed medication for asthma relief?

Last Answer : The most commonly prescribed medication for Asthma relief is albuterol. It comes as an inhaler or as nebulizer ampules.

Asthma quick relief drugs?

Description : Asthma quick relief drugs?

Last Answer : Asthma quick-relief drugs work fast to control asthma symptoms. You take them when you are coughing, wheezing, having trouble breathing, or having an asthma attack.Reviewed ByReview Date: ... , MD, MHA, Clinical Assistant Professor of Pediatrics, University of Washington School of Medicine.

The most consistent, pronounced and sustained relief of symptoms in chronic bronchial asthma is afforded by (a) ß2 sympathomimetics (b) Anticholinergics (c) Sodium cromoglycate (d) Corticosteroids

Description : The most consistent, pronounced and sustained relief of symptoms in chronic bronchial asthma is afforded by (a) ß2 sympathomimetics (b) Anticholinergics (c) Sodium cromoglycate (d) Corticosteroids

Last Answer : Ans: D

What should the patient be monitored for after receiving Narcan?

Description : What should the patient be monitored for after receiving Narcan?

Last Answer : what medication is used to treat iron toxicity

A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from? a) Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Description : A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/ ... Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Last Answer : d) Overdose toxicity 

6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should be done to the oral prednisolone medication after starting inhaled beclomethasone: A. It should be stopped immediately B. Its dose should be tapered from the next day C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Description : 6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should ... week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Last Answer : C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of TPN on the GI tract? a. Patients receiving TPN have an accentuated systemic response to endotoxin challenge compared to enterally fed volunteers b. TPN can result in disruption of intestinal microflora c. In experimental models, bacterial translocation from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Description : Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the ... from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d A number of studies have examined the effects of TPN on intestinal function and immunity. Although most of these studies have been done in animal models, ... the release of bacteria and/or cytokines leading to pronounced systemic responses and possibly multiple organ failure

Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate

Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate

Last Answer : Ans: C

A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above

Description : In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium

Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium

Last Answer : Ans: D

The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have laboratory tests ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Description : The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an ... d) hypoxia. Patients receiving mitoxantrone are closely monitored for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Last Answer : a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have ... ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Description : The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to ... output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Last Answer : a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

Description : When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement ... Pancrease. Commercially available enzymatic debriding agents include Accuzyme, Clooagenase, Granulex, and Zymase.

Last Answer : a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. b) interruption of GI integrity Tube feedings preserve GI integrity by intraluminal delivery of nutrients. c) disturbance in the sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism Tube feedings preserve the normal sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism. d) interruption in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Description : The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of ... in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Last Answer : a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings.

While making your PM shift endorsement, you saw the nursing attendant receiving a package from a patient’s watcher. Your appropriate action would be A. Reprimand the nursing attendant right away B. Remind the patient that gift giving to any hospital staff is not allowed C. Review with the nursing attendant the hospital policy D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

Description : While making your PM shift endorsement, you saw the nursing attendant receiving a package from a patient's watcher. Your appropriate action would be A. Reprimand the nursing attendant right away ... with the nursing attendant the hospital policy D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

Last Answer : D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate

Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate

Last Answer : C. Verapami

Your patient is to receive a selective ß2 stimulant drug ß2 selective stimulant are often effective in (a) Angina due to coronary insufficiency (b) Asthma (c) Chronic heart failure (d) Delayed or insufficiently strong labor (e) All of the above

Description : Your patient is to receive a selective ß2 stimulant drug ß2 selective stimulant are often effective in (a) Angina due to coronary insufficiency (b) Asthma (c) Chronic heart failure (d) Delayed or insufficiently strong labor (e) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: B

In an asthma patient treated with systemic corticosteroids, bronchodilator drugs (a) Are not needed (b) Are contraindicated (c) May be used on ‘as and when required’ basis (d) Are ineffective

Description : In an asthma patient treated with systemic corticosteroids, bronchodilator drugs (a) Are not needed (b) Are contraindicated (c) May be used on ‘as and when required’ basis (d) Are ineffective

Last Answer : Ans: C

In a patient of bronchial asthma, inhaled salbutamol produces the following effect(s). (a) Inhibits antigen-antibody reaction in the lungs (b) Causes bronchodilatation (c) Reduces bronchial hyperreactivity (d) Both (b) and (c)

Description : In a patient of bronchial asthma, inhaled salbutamol produces the following effect(s). (a) Inhibits antigen-antibody reaction in the lungs (b) Causes bronchodilatation (c) Reduces bronchial hyperreactivity (d) Both (b) and (c)

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity (FVC) (c) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Description : Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity ... ) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following agents and dosage regimens is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered sensitive to aspirin (experiences bronchospasm with use)? (a) Lbuprofen, 800 mg three times daily (b) Acetaminophen, 650 mg every 4 hours (c) Gold injections, 25 mg intramuscularly once a week (d) Azathioprine, 75 mg daily (e) Cyclophosphamide, 100 mg daily

Description : Which of the following agents and dosage regimens is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered sensitive to aspirin (experiences bronchospasm with use)? ... once a week (d) Azathioprine, 75 mg daily (e) Cyclophosphamide, 100 mg daily

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity (FVC) (c) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Description : Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity ... ) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Last Answer : Ans: D

If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will (a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum (c) Result in decreased enzymes in the soluble cytoplasmic fraction (d) Require 3-4 months to reach completion (e) Be irreversible

Description : If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will (a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum ... soluble cytoplasmic fraction (d) Require 3-4 months to reach completion (e) Be irreversible

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following terms best describes the antagonism of leukotriene’s bronchoconstrictor effect (mediated at leukotriene receptors) by terbutaline (acting a adrenoceptors) in a patient with asthma? (a) Pharmacologic antagonist (b) Partial agonist (c) Physiologic antagonist (d) Chemical antagonist (e) Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : Which of the following terms best describes the antagonism of leukotriene's bronchoconstrictor effect (mediated at leukotriene receptors) by terbutaline (acting a adrenoceptors) in a patient with ... ) Partial agonist (c) Physiologic antagonist (d) Chemical antagonist (e) Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : Ans: C

A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin

Description : A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin

Last Answer : D. Erythromycin