What should the patient be monitored for after receiving Narcan?

What should the patient be monitored for after receiving Narcan?
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what medication is used to treat iron toxicity
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The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have laboratory tests ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Description : The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an ... d) hypoxia. Patients receiving mitoxantrone are closely monitored for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Last Answer : a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have ... ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

A 54-year-old woman with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of (a) Agranulocytosis (b) Gallstones (c) Lactic acidosis (d) Myopathy (e) Thyrotoxicosis

Description : A 54-year-old woman with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of (a) Agranulocytosis (b) Gallstones (c) Lactic acidosis (d) Myopathy (e) Thyrotoxicosis

Last Answer : Ans: D

Did you hear about the Ohio sheriff who refuses to let his officers carry Narcan because he says "it's sucking the taxpayers dry?"?

Description : Did you hear about the Ohio sheriff who refuses to let his officers carry Narcan because he says "it's sucking the taxpayers dry?"?

Last Answer : If you place the lives of drug overdose victims below tax money, then yes, you are a heartless piece of shit.

The antidote to heparin is a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. b) vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin). c) Narcan. Narcan is the drug used to reverse signs and symptoms of medicationinduced narcosis. d) Ipecac. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.

Description : The antidote to heparin is a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. b) vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote to ... and symptoms of medicationinduced narcosis. d) Ipecac. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.

Last Answer : a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin.

After receiving a hormonal shot, an asthma patient will get relief in exhaling the air. The hormone injected will be

Description : After receiving a hormonal shot, an asthma patient will get relief in exhaling the air. The hormone injected will be

Last Answer : After receiving a hormonal shot, an asthma patient will get relief in exhaling the air. The ... Oxytocin B. Adrenaline C. Insulin D. Thyroxine

A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from? a) Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Description : A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/ ... Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Last Answer : d) Overdose toxicity 

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of TPN on the GI tract? a. Patients receiving TPN have an accentuated systemic response to endotoxin challenge compared to enterally fed volunteers b. TPN can result in disruption of intestinal microflora c. In experimental models, bacterial translocation from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Description : Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the ... from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d A number of studies have examined the effects of TPN on intestinal function and immunity. Although most of these studies have been done in animal models, ... the release of bacteria and/or cytokines leading to pronounced systemic responses and possibly multiple organ failure

Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate

Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate

Last Answer : Ans: C

A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above

Description : In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium

Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium

Last Answer : Ans: D

The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Description : The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to ... output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Last Answer : a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

Description : When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement ... Pancrease. Commercially available enzymatic debriding agents include Accuzyme, Clooagenase, Granulex, and Zymase.

Last Answer : a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. b) interruption of GI integrity Tube feedings preserve GI integrity by intraluminal delivery of nutrients. c) disturbance in the sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism Tube feedings preserve the normal sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism. d) interruption in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Description : The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of ... in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Last Answer : a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings.

While making your PM shift endorsement, you saw the nursing attendant receiving a package from a patient’s watcher. Your appropriate action would be A. Reprimand the nursing attendant right away B. Remind the patient that gift giving to any hospital staff is not allowed C. Review with the nursing attendant the hospital policy D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

Description : While making your PM shift endorsement, you saw the nursing attendant receiving a package from a patient's watcher. Your appropriate action would be A. Reprimand the nursing attendant right away ... with the nursing attendant the hospital policy D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

Last Answer : D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate

Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate

Last Answer : C. Verapami

Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug reaction? a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic. b) A 22 year old patient with asthma receiving prescriptions for inhalers to relieve and prevent their asthma. c) A 48 year old patient who has hypertension and receives a prescription for an ACE Inhibitor. d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug reaction? a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic. b) A 22 year old patient ... ACE Inhibitor. d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic. 

Last Answer : d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic. 

Why are people uncomfortable with being monitored? Why exactly is privacy so damn important?

Description : Why are people uncomfortable with being monitored? Why exactly is privacy so damn important?

Last Answer : Privacy is a possession, just like cash, or diamonds. Invaded is stolen.

In what ways have you been reminded of how much our online activity is tracked and monitored?

Description : In what ways have you been reminded of how much our online activity is tracked and monitored?

Last Answer : I know FB suggests friends based on my proximity to them. Seems like when location services peggs two people as being colocated for a certain length of time it assumes you may want to friend them. A little creepy.

Discussing Osama Bin Laden - Is ask-public being monitored by the FBI, CIA or NSA?

Description : Discussing Osama Bin Laden - Is ask-public being monitored by the FBI, CIA or NSA?

Last Answer : Sure they are. Echelon is real, and at least in my country the military intelligence monitors all internet traffic across the border. I would be surprised if it wasn't filtered by some other countries intelligence ... by the way, I find is most likely dead. Not that it seems to matter much anymore.

What type of energy is monitored by forecasting future space weather?

Description : What type of energy is monitored by forecasting future space weather?

Last Answer : Need answer

What metrics can be monitored through cloudwatch without being charged?

Description : What metrics can be monitored through cloudwatch without being charged?

Last Answer : Feel Free to Answer

Are car seat regulations monitored by the government ?

Description : Are car seat regulations monitored by the government ?

Last Answer : Yes, the government mandates every child be in a car seat until he or she is at least 3 years old. After that age, it is important you switch to a front facing car seat.

How are physical activities monitored through an online school?

Description : How are physical activities monitored through an online school?

Last Answer : Its really based on an honor system. You put the info down and it is recored. But its really better to just take a physical course since its easier...

What database aspects should be monitored? (for DBA

Description : What database aspects should be monitored? (for DBA

Last Answer : One should implement a monitoring system to constantly monitor the following aspects of a database. Writing custom scripts, implementing Oracle's Enterprise Manager, or buying a third-party monitoring product ... up? . Objects getting close to their max extents . User and process limits reached

How the project work will be carried out, monitored, and controlled? These questions are answered in which phase of the project management? (A) Initiating (B) Planning (C) Executing (D) Closing

Description : How the project work will be carried out, monitored, and controlled? These questions are  answered in which phase of the project management? (A) Initiating (B) Planning (C) Executing (D) Closing

Last Answer : (B) Planning

Which one of the following sets of parameters should be monitored for determining safe operation of journal bearing? [IES-2000] Oil pressure, bearing metal temperature and bearing vibration (b) Bearing vibration, oil pressure and speed of shaft (c) Bearing metal temperature and oil pressure (d) Oil pressure and bearing vibration

Description : Which one of the following sets of parameters should be monitored for determining safe operation of journal bearing? [IES-2000] Oil pressure, bearing metal temperature and bearing vibration (b) ... shaft (c) Bearing metal temperature and oil pressure (d) Oil pressure and bearing vibration

Last Answer : Oil pressure, bearing metal temperature and bearing vibration

Mention parameters monitored by turbovisory instruments.

Description : Mention parameters monitored by turbovisory instruments. 

Last Answer : a. Speed governing. b. Eccentricity monitoring. c. Vibration monitoring. d. Valve position monitoring. e. Temperature monitoring. f. Pressure monitoring. g. Level monitoring. h. Gas leak monitoring. i. Conductivity monitoring. j. Flow monitoring.

Which of the following is a SaaS characteristic? a) The typical license is subscription-based or usage-based and is billed on a recurring basis b) The software is available over the Internet globally through a browser on demand c) The software and the service are monitored and maintained by the vendor d) All of the mentioned

Description : Which of the following is a SaaS characteristic? a) The typical license is subscription-based or usage-based and is billed on a recurring basis b) The software is available over the Internet ... The software and the service are monitored and maintained by the vendor d) All of the mentioned

Last Answer : All of the mentioned

Which of the following is a SaaS characteristic? A. The typical license is subscription-based or usage-based and is billed on a recurring basis B. The software is available over the Internet globally through a browser on demand C. The software and the service are monitored and maintained by the vendor D. All of the above

Description : Which of the following is a SaaS characteristic? A. The typical license is subscription-based or usage-based and is billed on a recurring basis B. The software is available over the Internet globally ... . The software and the service are monitored and maintained by the vendor D. All of the above

Last Answer : All of the above

Which of the following is a SaaS characteristic? a) The typical license is subscription-based or usage-based and is billed on a recurring basis b) The software is available over the Internet globally through a browser on demand c) The software and the service are monitored and maintained by the vendor d) All of the mentioned

Description : Which of the following is a SaaS characteristic? a) The typical license is subscription-based or usage-based and is billed on a recurring basis b) The software is available over the Internet globally ... The software and the service are monitored and maintained by the vendor d) All of the mentioned

Last Answer : All of the mentioned

Which information is stored in a monitoring segment of the alert monitoring infrastructure within the Computing Center Management System (CCMS)? Note: there are 2 corrects answered to this questions A. Current monitoring data of monitored components B. The coding of data collectors C. Open alerts within CCMS D. Monitoring definitions

Description : Which information is stored in a monitoring segment of the alert monitoring infrastructure within the Computing Center Management System (CCMS)? Note: there are 2 corrects answered to this questions A. ... B. The coding of data collectors C. Open alerts within CCMS D. Monitoring definitions

Last Answer : A. Current monitoring data of monitored components B. The coding of data collectors

While giving CPR which of the following is considered: a. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute. b. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations per minute. c. You have to check compression point by thumbing before starting compression. d. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Description : While giving CPR which of the following is considered: a. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute. b. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations ... starting compression. d. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Last Answer : c. You have to check compression point by thumbing before starting compression.

While giving CPR which of the following is correct: A. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute B. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations per minute C. You have to check compression point by thumping before starting compression D. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Description : While giving CPR which of the following is correct: A. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute B. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 ... thumping before starting compression D. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Last Answer : C. You have to check compression point by thumping before starting compression

IPhone 4 taking mail off of server after receiving?

Description : IPhone 4 taking mail off of server after receiving?

Last Answer : answer:If the account is using the POP system for retrieving mail, there will be a setting allowing you to delete files on the server once they have been downloaded to a device. You need to turn this ... the Advanced there is a setting called Delete from Server' which you want to set to Never'.

I am receiving a check in amount of 14,000.00 from my employer. I only claim one dependent. How much can I expect to receive after taxes are taken out?

Description : I am receiving a check in amount of 14,000.00 from my employer. I only claim one dependent. How much can I expect to receive after taxes are taken out?

Last Answer : I am receiving a check in amount of 14,000.00 from my employer. I only claim one dependent. How much can I expect to receive after taxes are taken out?” Topics: Hr Block

The national agency mandated to control, analyse and disseminate Suspicious Transaction Reports(STR), Cash Transaction Reports and counterfeit currency reports to various investigative agencies of the country after receiving it from banks and other financial intermediaries is ________ A. RBI B. Financial Intelligence Unit(FIU) C. Intelligence Bureau(IB) D. Central Bureau of Investigation(CBI) E. Central Intelligence Unit(CIU)

Description : The national agency mandated to control, analyse and disseminate Suspicious Transaction Reports(STR), Cash Transaction Reports and counterfeit currency reports to various investigative agencies of the country after ... (IB) D. Central Bureau of Investigation(CBI) E. Central Intelligence Unit(CIU)

Last Answer : B. Financial Intelligence Unit(FIU) Explanation: The FIU is the national agency mandated to collect, analyse and disseminate Suspicious Transaction Reports (STRs), Cash Transaction Reports ... country after receiving it from banks and other financial intermediaries under a stipulated mechanism.

A money order received but loss before payment a) The postmaster should then give an intimation to the office of issue by telegraph/fax b) After receiving the intimation the office of issue will prepare duplicate MO in MO 57 and forward to office of payment by service regd post c) A report regarding the issue of a duplicate money order should be made to the home postal account office. d) All the above

Description : A money order received but loss before payment a) The postmaster should then give an intimation to the office of issue by telegraph/fax b) After receiving the intimation the office of issue will prepare ... a duplicate money order should be made to the home postal account office. d) All the above

Last Answer : d) All the above

Which of the following best describes the passing of confidential information from a client to its auditor? The information: a. Should in no circumstances be conveyed to third parties. b. Is not legally protected and can be subpoenaed by a competent court. c. Can only be released for peer reviews after receiving permission from the client. d. Should be conveyed to the public if it affects the "correctness" of the financial statement

Description : Which of the following best describes the passing of confidential information from a client to its auditor? The information: a. Should in no circumstances be conveyed to third parties. b. Is not ... d. Should be conveyed to the public if it affects the "correctness" of the financial statement

Last Answer : Is not legally protected and can be subpoenaed by a competent cour

Which of the following best describes the passing of confidential information from a client to its auditor? The information: a. Should in no circumstances be conveyed to third parties. b. Is not legally protected and can be subpoenaed by a competent court. c. Can only be released for peer reviews after receiving permission from the client. d. Should be conveyed to the public if it affects the "correctness" of the financial statements

Description : Which of the following best describes the passing of confidential information from a client to its auditor? The information: a. Should in no circumstances be conveyed to third parties. b. Is not ... d. Should be conveyed to the public if it affects the "correctness" of the financial statements

Last Answer : Is not legally protected and can be subpoenaed by a competent court.