Cervical priming with prostaglandin results in: A. Facilitation of sperm movement through cervical canal B. Increased cervical tone C. Softening of cervix D. Increased cervical secretions

Cervical priming with prostaglandin results in: A. Facilitation of sperm movement through cervical canal B. Increased cervical tone C. Softening of cervix D. Increased cervical secretions
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Answer :

C. Softening of cervix
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Cervical priming with prostaglandin results in (a) Facilitation of sperm movement through cervical canal (b) Increased cervical tone (c) Softening of cervix (d) Increased cervical secretions

Description : Cervical priming with prostaglandin results in (a) Facilitation of sperm movement through cervical canal (b) Increased cervical tone (c) Softening of cervix (d) Increased cervical secretions

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following drug is used for cervical priming to facilitate labour: A. Oxytocin B. Clomiphene C. Progesterone D. Prostaglandin E2

Description : The following drug is used for cervical priming to facilitate labour: A. Oxytocin B. Clomiphene C. Progesterone D. Prostaglandin E2

Last Answer : D. Prostaglandin E2

Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma

Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma

Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions

Description : Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions

Last Answer : B. Antivagal action

The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and LH release C. Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Description : The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and ... Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Last Answer : B. Suppression of FSH and LH release

The term cervical cancer is about the cervix, but cervical muscles is about the neck/spine?

Description : The term cervical cancer is about the cervix, but cervical muscles is about the neck/spine?

Last Answer : Cervix is Latin for neck Places where it gets narrow is called the neck- Narrow part of uterus is the neck Cervix means neck Cervical means pertaining to the neck

The following action(s) of heparin is/are essential for inhibition of factor Xa: A. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor XIIa B. Provision of scaffold for the clotting factor to interact with antithrombin III C. Induction of a configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B

Description : The following action(s) of heparin is/are essential for inhibition of factor Xa: A. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor XIIa B. Provision of scaffold for the clotting factor ... configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites D. Both A' and B

Last Answer : C. Induction of a configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites

he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Description : he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and ... of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Last Answer : B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombi

The antidotal effect of sodium nitrite in cyanide poisoning is dependent upon: A. Chemical combination of sodium nitrite with cyanide B. Vasodilatation caused by sodium nitrite C. Conversion of haemoglobin to methaemoglobin by sodium nitrite D. Facilitation of cyanocobalamine formation by sodium nitrite

Description : The antidotal effect of sodium nitrite in cyanide poisoning is dependent upon: A. Chemical combination of sodium nitrite with cyanide B. Vasodilatation caused by sodium nitrite C. ... haemoglobin to methaemoglobin by sodium nitrite D. Facilitation of cyanocobalamine formation by sodium nitrite

Last Answer : C. Conversion of haemoglobin to methaemoglobin by sodium nitrite

The primary action by which entacapone and tolcapone enhance the therapeutic effect of levodopa-carbidopa in parkinsonism is: A. Inhibition of levodopa methylation in the liver B. Inhibition of dopamine methylation in the brain C. Inhibition of oxidative deamination of dopamine in the brain D. Facilitation of active transport of levodopa across brain capillaries

Description : The primary action by which entacapone and tolcapone enhance the therapeutic effect of levodopa-carbidopa in parkinsonism is: A. Inhibition of levodopa methylation in the liver B. Inhibition of ... of dopamine in the brain D. Facilitation of active transport of levodopa across brain capillaries

Last Answer : A. Inhibition of levodopa methylation in the liver

The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

Description : The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

Last Answer : D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

The primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is: A. Dopamine antagonism B. Adenosine antagonism C. Opening of neuronal chloride channels D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

Description : The primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is: A. Dopamine antagonism B. Adenosine antagonism C. Opening of neuronal chloride channels D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

Last Answer : D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

Action of Insulin does not include the following: A. Facilitation of glucose transport into cells B. Facilitation of glycogen synthesis by liver C. Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver D. Inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue

Description : Action of Insulin does not include the following: A. Facilitation of glucose transport into cells B. Facilitation of glycogen synthesis by liver C. Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver D. Inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue

Last Answer : . Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver

Presence of H2S in raw water (to be chlorinated) results in the (A) Reduced softening capacity of zeolite (B) Increased dosage of chlorine to provide a disinfecting residual in the water (C) Easy removal of its hardness (D) None of these

Description : Presence of H2S in raw water (to be chlorinated) results in the (A) Reduced softening capacity of zeolite (B) Increased dosage of chlorine to provide a disinfecting residual in the water (C) Easy removal of its hardness (D) None of these

Last Answer : (B) Increased dosage of chlorine to provide a disinfecting residual in the water

What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum? (a) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida. (b) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails. (c) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one. (d) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida.

Description : What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum? (a) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida. (b) All sperms except ... all the sperms except one. (d) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida.

Last Answer : (a) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida.

The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Description : The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Last Answer : D. Increased vagal tone

The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone

Estrogens are palliative in the following malignancy: A. Carcinoma breast B. Carcinoma cervix C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Carcinoma prostate

Description : Estrogens are palliative in the following malignancy: A. Carcinoma breast B. Carcinoma cervix C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Carcinoma prostate

Last Answer : D. Carcinoma prostate

Assertion : The acrosomal secretions of sperm , help it in entering in the cytoplasm of the ovum . Reason : It contains sperm lysin .

Description : Assertion : The acrosomal secretions of sperm , help it in entering in the cytoplasm of the ovum . Reason : It contains sperm lysin .

Last Answer : Assertion : The acrosomal secretions of sperm , help it in entering in the cytoplasm of the ovum . ... . D. If both Assertion & Reason are False.

What are Secretions of glands combined with sperm?

Description : What are Secretions of glands combined with sperm?

Last Answer : Semen

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop of Henle. C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop ... C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Last Answer : A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions

Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction involves the mediation of: A. Angiotensin II B. Prostaglandin C. Bradykinin D. Thromboxane A2

Description : Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction involves the mediation of: A. Angiotensin II B. Prostaglandin C. Bradykinin D. Thromboxane A2

Last Answer : A. Angiotensin II

Select the drug that has been used to suppress labour: A. Atropine B. Ritodrine C. Prostaglandin E2 D. Progesterone

Description : Select the drug that has been used to suppress labour: A. Atropine B. Ritodrine C. Prostaglandin E2 D. Progesterone

Last Answer : B. Ritodrine

The drug of choice for controlling postpartum haemorrhage is: A. Oxytocin B. Methylergometrine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Prostaglandin E2

Description : The drug of choice for controlling postpartum haemorrhage is: A. Oxytocin B. Methylergometrine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Prostaglandin E2

Last Answer : B. Methylergometrine

Aldosterone enhances Na+ reabsorption in renal tubules by: A. Stimulating carbonic anhydrase B. Activating Na+ K+ ATPase C. Inducing the synthesis of Na+ K+ ATPase D. Inducing renal prostaglandin synthesis

Description : Aldosterone enhances Na+ reabsorption in renal tubules by: A. Stimulating carbonic anhydrase B. Activating Na+ K+ ATPase C. Inducing the synthesis of Na+ K+ ATPase D. Inducing renal prostaglandin synthesis

Last Answer : C. Inducing the synthesis of Na+ K+ ATPase

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Select the receptor that is located intracellularly: A. Opioid μ receptor B. Steroid receptor C. Prostaglandin receptor D. Angiotensin receptor

Description : Select the receptor that is located intracellularly: A. Opioid μ receptor B. Steroid receptor C. Prostaglandin receptor D. Angiotensin receptor

Last Answer : B. Steroid receptor

Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins

Description : The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins

Last Answer : C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients

Choose the correct statement about nonopioid analgesics: A. All have antiinflammatory property B. All lack dependence producing liability C. All act exclusively at peripheral pain mechanisms D. All inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonopioid analgesics: A. All have antiinflammatory property B. All lack dependence producing liability C. All act exclusively at peripheral pain mechanisms D. All inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Last Answer : B. All lack dependence producing liability

The early pregnancy uterus is sensitive to the following oxytocic: A. Oxytocin B. Methylergometrine C. Prostaglandin F2α D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : The early pregnancy uterus is sensitive to the following oxytocic: A. Oxytocin B. Methylergometrine C. Prostaglandin F2α D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Prostaglandin F2α

Tachyphylaxis to many actions on repeated injection is a feature of the following autacoid: A. Histamine B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Bradykinin D. Prostaglandin E2

Description : Tachyphylaxis to many actions on repeated injection is a feature of the following autacoid: A. Histamine B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Bradykinin D. Prostaglandin E2

Last Answer : B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine

Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during surgery C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Description : Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during ... Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Last Answer : C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the patient’s management? a. Feeding into the stomach results in stimulation of the biliary/pancreatic axis which is probably trophic for small bowel b. Gastric secretions will dilute the feedings increasing the risk of diarrhea c. The major risk in this patient is tracheobronchial aspiration d. Placement of the feeding catheter through the pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Description : A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the ... pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The use of transnasal feeding catheters for intragastric feeding or for duodenal intubation are popular adjuncts for providing nutritional support by the enteral route. The ... the fourth portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feeding formulas

A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Description : A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Last Answer : C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation

Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Description : Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Last Answer : A. Mifepristone

Progesterone administration: A. Suppresses onset of menstruation B. Induces watery cervical secretion C. Sensitizes the uterus to oxytocin D. Cornifies vaginal epithelium

Description : Progesterone administration: A. Suppresses onset of menstruation B. Induces watery cervical secretion C. Sensitizes the uterus to oxytocin D. Cornifies vaginal epithelium

Last Answer : A. Suppresses onset of menstruation

Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Description : Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Last Answer : . Ormeloxifen

Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

Description : Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

Last Answer : A. Takes about one week to develop

Priming in a distillation column (A) Results from very low gas velocity (B) Is desirable from point efficiency consideration (C) Is characterised by the presence of foam throughout the space between trays (D) Reduces the overall pressure drop

Description : Priming in a distillation column (A) Results from very low gas velocity (B) Is desirable from point efficiency consideration (C) Is characterised by the presence of foam throughout the space between trays (D) Reduces the overall pressure drop

Last Answer : (C) Is characterised by the presence of foam throughout the space between trays

The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females (a) who cannot produce an ovum (b) who cannot retain the fetus inside uterus (c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms (d) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation.

Description : The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females (a) who cannot produce an ovum (b) who cannot retain the fetus inside uterus (c) whose cervical ... narrow to allow passage for the sperms (d) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation.

Last Answer : (a) who cannot produce an ovum

3. In IVF technique zygote or early embryo is transferred into a. Cervical canal b. Uterus c. Fallopian tube d. Vagina

Description : 3. In IVF technique zygote or early embryo is transferred into a. Cervical canal b. Uterus c. Fallopian tube d. Vagina

Last Answer : c. Fallopian tube

The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases tone and segmenting activity of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action

Select the drug(s) which afford(s) relief in gastroesophageal reflux by increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone and promoting gastric emptying, but without affecting acidity of gastric contents: A. Sodium alginate B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Description : Select the drug(s) which afford(s) relief in gastroesophageal reflux by increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone and promoting gastric emptying, but without affecting acidity of gastric contents: A. Sodium alginate B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

ndicate the drug which does not improve lower esophageal sphincter tone or prevent gastroesophageal reflux, but is used as first line treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Sodium alginate + aluminium hydroxide gel B. Omeprazole C. Mosapride D. Famotidine

Description : ndicate the drug which does not improve lower esophageal sphincter tone or prevent gastroesophageal reflux, but is used as first line treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Sodium alginate + aluminium hydroxide gel B. Omeprazole C. Mosapride D. Famotidine

Last Answer : B. Omeprazole

Metoclopramide has the following actions except: A. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter C. Increases gastric peristalsis D. Increases intestinal peristalsis

Description : Metoclopramide has the following actions except: A. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter C. Increases gastric peristalsis D. Increases intestinal peristalsis

Last Answer : B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter