Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients:
A. Young hypertensives
B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives
C. Elderly obese hypertensives
D. Diabetic hypertensives
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Elderly obese hypertensives
by

Related questions

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

Use of morphine in the following category of patients does not carry any special risk: A. Ischaemic heart disease patients B. Bronchial asthma patients C. Elderly male patients D. Biliary colic patients

Description : Use of morphine in the following category of patients does not carry any special risk: A. Ischaemic heart disease patients B. Bronchial asthma patients C. Elderly male patients D. Biliary colic patients

Last Answer : A. Ischaemic heart disease patients

Radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice for the following category of thyrotoxic patients: A. Children B. Young adults with recent oneset of Grave’s disease C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease D. Pregnant women

Description : Radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice for the following category of thyrotoxic patients: A. Children B. Young adults with recent oneset of Grave’s disease C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency

The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Description : The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Last Answer : C. Cortical diluting segment

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Description : Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C ... in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K

Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Last Answer : B. Calcium

As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action

Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Description : Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Nifedipine

The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Description : The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar pattern of haemodynamic action are superior to those with dissimilar pattern C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Description : Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar ... should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Last Answer : C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined

As an antacid, sodium bicarbonate has the following disadvantages except: A. It causes acid rebound B. In ulcer patients, it increases risk of perforation C. It has low acid neutralizing capacity D. It is contraindicated in hypertensives

Description : As an antacid, sodium bicarbonate has the following disadvantages except: A. It causes acid rebound B. In ulcer patients, it increases risk of perforation C. It has low acid neutralizing capacity D. It is contraindicated in hypertensives

Last Answer : C. It has low acid neutralizing capacity

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in: A. High renin hypertensives B. Diabetics C. Congestive heart failure patients D. Pregnant women

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in: A. High renin hypertensives B. Diabetics C. Congestive heart failure patients D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : D. Pregnant women

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Description : Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Description : Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Low dose therapy with the following category of antihypertensive drugs has been found to be more advantageous in the long-term than high dose therapy with the same drugs: A. β adrenergic blockers B. α1 adrenergic blockers C. Central sympatholytics D. Diuretics

Description : Low dose therapy with the following category of antihypertensive drugs has been found to be more advantageous in the long-term than high dose therapy with the same drugs: A. β adrenergic blockers B. α1 adrenergic blockers C. Central sympatholytics D. Diuretics

Last Answer : D. Diuretics

In which range of body mass index (BMI) are patients considered to have increased risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status? a) Below 24 Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized patients and community-dwelling elderly are associated with individuals who have low BMI. b) 25-29 Those who have a BMI of 25 to 29 are considered overweight. c) 30 to 39 Those who have BMI of 30-39 are considered obese. d) Over 40 Those who have BMI over 40 are considered extremely obese.

Description : In which range of body mass index (BMI) are patients considered to have increased risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status? a) Below 24 Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized ... considered obese. d) Over 40 Those who have BMI over 40 are considered extremely obese.

Last Answer : a) Below 24 Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized patients and community-dwelling elderly are associated with individuals who have low BMI.

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami

Description : Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami

Last Answer : C. Captopril

Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : A. Symptomatic relief

Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the progression of diabetic nephropathy. C. Hypertension is associated with sodium retention in diabetes patients. D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be used in all patients with chronic hyperglycemia, regardless of the presence of hypertension. E. Diuretics, as single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Description : Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the ... single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of the answers listed are correct. By damaging endothelial cells, hypertension worsens macrovascular disease in all patients but especially in diabetics. Hypertension ... is not indicated because the chronic state of dehydration in such patients may become worse

Thiazide diuretics inhibit (A) Carbonic anhydrase (B) Aldosterone secretion (C) ADH secretion (D) Sodium reabsorption in distal tubules

Description : Thiazide diuretics inhibit (A) Carbonic anhydrase (B) Aldosterone secretion (C) ADH secretion (D) Sodium reabsorption in distal tubules

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics

Description : Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Description : Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Last Answer : c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine 

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Paracetamol has the following advantage(s) over NSAIDs: A. It is the first choice analgesic for majority of osteoarthritis patients B. It can be given safely to all age groups from infants to elderly C. It is not contraindicated in pregnant or breast feeding women D. All of the above

Description : Paracetamol has the following advantage(s) over NSAIDs: A. It is the first choice analgesic for majority of osteoarthritis patients B. It can be given safely to all age groups from infants to elderly C. It is not contraindicated in pregnant or breast feeding women D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Description : Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Last Answer : A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in eld

Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action

The following antiepileptic drug is likely to cause hyponatremia as a side effect, especially in elderly patients: A. Primidone B. Carbamazepine C. Phenytoin D. Sodium valproate

Description : The following antiepileptic drug is likely to cause hyponatremia as a side effect, especially in elderly patients: A. Primidone B. Carbamazepine C. Phenytoin D. Sodium valproate

Last Answer : B. Carbamazepine

Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not justified in the following condition: A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold B. Thoroughly cleaned contaminated wound C. Rheumatic fever in a child of 10 years D. Catheterization of urethra in an elderly male

Description : Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not justified in the following condition: A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold B. Thoroughly cleaned contaminated wound C. Rheumatic fever in a child of 10 years D. Catheterization of urethra in an elderly male

Last Answer : A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold

Conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone by the enzyme 5α-reductase is required for the following actions except: A. Formation of male external genitalia in the foetus B. Prostatic hypertrophy in elderly males C. Pubertal changes in the male adolescent D. Spermatogenesis

Description : Conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone by the enzyme 5α-reductase is required for the following actions except: A. Formation of male external genitalia in the foetus B. Prostatic hypertrophy in elderly males C. Pubertal changes in the male adolescent D. Spermatogenesis

Last Answer : D. Spermatogenesis

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patients C. Adult contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Description : Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Last Answer : C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation

Consumption of alcoholic beverages in moderate amounts can be allowed for the following category of subjects: A. Epileptics B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction C. Gastroesophageal reflux patients D. Pregnant women

Description : Consumption of alcoholic beverages in moderate amounts can be allowed for the following category of subjects: A. Epileptics B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction C. Gastroesophageal reflux patients D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction

Select the antiepileptic drug that in addition is a preferred treatment for post herpetic neuralgia and pain due to diabetic neuropathy: A. Carbamazepine B. Gabapentin C. Lamotrigine D. Primidone

Description : Select the antiepileptic drug that in addition is a preferred treatment for post herpetic neuralgia and pain due to diabetic neuropathy: A. Carbamazepine B. Gabapentin C. Lamotrigine D. Primidone

Last Answer : B. Gabapentin

Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria C. It is highly effective in acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills ... acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Last Answer : B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria

The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularly C. All hypnotics aggravate sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Description : The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B ... sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Last Answer : B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularl

Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

Description : Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

Last Answer : B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis

Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects

What is true of nimesulide: A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition B. It is preferred for long-term use in rheumatoid arthritis C. It is contraindicated in aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. All of the above

Description : What is true of nimesulide: A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition B. It is preferred for long-term use in rheumatoid arthritis C. It is contraindicated in aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition

In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended in all type 2 diabetes patients C. Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Description : In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended ... Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Last Answer : D. Both A and C are correct

The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Description : The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Last Answer : B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic

n addition to counteracting potassium loss, triamterene also opposes the following consequence of thiazide/furosemide therapy: A. Hyperuricaemia B. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol C. Magnesium loss D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : n addition to counteracting potassium loss, triamterene also opposes the following consequence of thiazide/furosemide therapy: A. Hyperuricaemia B. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol C. Magnesium loss D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Magnesium loss

Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Description : Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release